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Exam Code: ST0-067
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0 (STS))
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 118 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 Which three database maintenance tasks must be performed outside of Symantec Control Compliance
Suite 9.0? (Select three.)
A. purge evidence
B. back up the databases
C. purge stale data
D. shrink the databases
E. defragment the databases
Answer: BDE

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NO.2 Which term refers to rules created by a government in response to legislation?
A. framework
B. standard
C. policy
D. benchmark
E. regulation
Answer: E

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NO.3 Which information is displayed in the Monitor View?
A. jobs and reports
B. jobs and evaluation results
C. tasks and reports
D. data collections and evaluation results
Answer: B

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NO.4 A user-defined report template is created from a predefined report template.
When a user-defined report template is deleted, what happens to the predefined report template?
A. The predefined template is also deleted.
B. The predefined template is automatically updated with the latest changes.
C. The predefined template is unaffected.
D. The predefined template reverts to the original template.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which three functions are provided by Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0? (Select three.)
A. provides the ability to attest to procedural controls
B. uses automated agentless or agent-based capabilities to audit and scan technical controls
C. verifies and confirms risk and posture compliance assessment
D. produces evidence of due care in an IT audit process
E. integrates the remediation process
Answer: ABD

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NO.6 Which four bv-Control platforms are supported in Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0 Standards?
(Select four.)
A. Oracle
B. Windows
C. UNIX
D. Exchange
E. SQL
F. NetWare
Answer: ABCE

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NO.7 Which Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0 component is responsible for routing data collection,
evaluation, and reporting jobs?
A. application server
B. collector
C. load balancer
D. Management Service
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which two benefits does the Policy Module provide? (Select two.)
A. determines coverage gaps for multiple, overlapped regulatory, industry-specific, or best practices
frameworks
B. lowers the cost of policy creation and maintenance and measures policy knowledge and retention
C. defines, reviews, and disseminates written policies to end users as mapped to specific measurable
controls
D. integrates the policy compliance process with existing asset management systems
E. identifies problems within policies or internal controls and prevents policy compliance failure or data
breach
Answer: AC

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NO.9 When does the RMS Console Configuration Wizard appear? (Select two.)
A. every time a new license has been added
B. the first time that a user opens the console after the installation or the upgrade
C. after a new Credential database has been applied to the user
D. after a bv-Control snap-in installation on the console computer
E. after the user has changed their default information server
Answer: BD

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NO.10 Communications between Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0 (CCS 9.0) components rely on a
signed digital certificate.
What is the root certificate authority in the CCS 9.0 environment?
A. Microsoft Certificate Authority Server
B. Certificate Management Console Server
C. CCS Management Service
D. Application Server
Answer: C

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NO.11 In Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0, if an administrator wants to evaluate assets compared to a
referenced asset, what is used?
A. reference evaluation
B. baseline standard
C. gold standard
D. policy mapping
Answer: C

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NO.12 In the context of IT compliance, what are standards?
A. a set of generally accepted best practices
B. a protector against a specific risk or threat
C. statements of goals and objectives
D. a collection of methods to evaluate compliance efforts
Answer: A

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NO.13 What is the minimum number of computers required to configure each Data Processing Service role?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which three are components of the Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0? (Select three.)
A. web portal
B. Evidence database
C. ESM database
D. Cognos
E. application server
Answer: ABE

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NO.15 Which Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0 component is responsible for most inter-component
transactions?
A. Directory Support Service
B. Data Processing Service
C. Information Server Service
D. Application Server Service
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which databases are created by Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0 Reporting and Analytics
during installation?
A. Production, Reporting, Evidence
B. bv, Compliance Manager, Policy Manager
C. Dashboard, Reporting, SMC
D. Evidence, Standards, Policies
Answer: A

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NO.17 Data can be collected using which two data collectors in Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0?
(Select two.)
A. ESM
B. XML
C. ODBC
D. CSV
E. AS400
Answer: AD

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NO.18 Which two are modules of Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0? (Select two.)
A. Standards
B. bv-Control
C. ESM
D. Internet Security
E. Entitlements
Answer: AE

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NO.19 Which term refers to organizational rules or requirements that provide guidance to employees?
A. framework
B. standard
C. policy
D. benchmark
E. regulation
Answer: C

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NO.20 What needs to be configured in order to collect common fields during a asset import using the default
data collector?
A. ESM data collector
B. CSV data collector
C. Automatic Entitlements Import job
D. a policy with associated assets
Answer: B

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Exam Code: ST0-94X
Exam Name: Symantec (Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for UNIX(STS))
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Total Q&A: 145 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 Which type of storage virtualization is Veritas Storage Foundation?
A. network-based
B. storage-based
C. host-based
D. direct-based
Answer: C

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NO.2 An administrator sets up site awareness on a host, and wants to verify that everything is set up
correctly.
Which command should they execute to break off one of the sites to verify the configuration?
A. vxbreak site
B. vxfiredrill
C. vxdg detachsite
D. vxsite detach
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which command displays the number of paths for disk hds9500-alua0_57?
A. vxdisk -p list hds9500-alua0_57
B. vxdisk scandisk hds9500-alua0_57
C. vxdmpadm list hds9500-alua0_57
D. vxdisk list hds9500-alua0_57
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which command should be used to lock a mounted vxfs file system?
A. fsck
B. mountlock
C. vxedit
D. fsadm
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which two features are available only with Storage Foundation Enterprise? (Select two.)
A. Cross-platform Data Sharing (CDS)
B. Dynamic Storage Tiering (DST)
C. Veritas Operations Manager (VOM)
D. Dynamic Multipathing (DMP)
E. ability to import LUN snapshots
Answer: AB

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NO.6 Which component of Veritas Storage Foundation virtualizes storage?
A. File System
B. Volume Manager
C. Cluster Server
D. Volume Replicator
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which type of storage virtualization presents disks from multiple arrays and multiple vendors virtually
to one or more servers?
A. host-based
B. network-based
C. storage-based
D. web-based
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which Veritas Volume Manager daemon monitors changes to the disk group configuration data and
automatically saves to a file any configuration changes that occur?
A. vxconfigd
B. vxrelocd
C. vxconfigbackupd
D. vxiod
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which scenario requires host-based storage virtualization?
A. A server needs access to network-attached storage.
B. Servers with different operating systems need to access a single disk array.
C. Multiple servers need to access a single disk array.
D. A server needs to mirror data across disk arrays from different vendors.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which two circumstances justify moving a disk group from Server A to Server B? (Select two.)
A. Server A is having hardware problems.
B. The volumes on Server B are redundant.
C. Server B offers better performance than Server A.
D. The volumes on Server A are concatenated.
E. Server B has no access to the SAN.
Answer: AE

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NO.11 Which Storage Foundation utility is used to generate random read and random write work loads so that
the performance of a file system can be analyzed?
A. vxbench
B. vxtrace
C. vxstat
D. vmstat
Answer: A

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NO.12 What is a primary advantage of the concatenation type of volume layout?
A. better free space utilization
B. improved performance
C. automatic load balancing
D. improved availability
Answer: A

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NO.13 Refer to the exhibit.
What can the administrator determine about the layout of the volume described in the 'vxprint' output
provided in the exhibit?
A. The volume is striped across six disks.
B. The volume is mirrored with two plexes striped across three columns.
C. The volume is layered with two sub-volumes mirrored across three disks.
D. The volume is mirrored with three plexes striped across two columns.
Answer: B

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NO.14 What does storage virtualization create?
A. additional storage space
B. more processing power
C. an abstraction layer above physical storage
D. more virtual memory
Answer: C

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NO.15 An administrator wants to use the Veritas Enterprise Administrator GUI to manage Veritas Storage
Foundation from a remote system.
Which two services must be running on the Veritas Storage Foundation server? (Select two.)
A. vxconfigd
B. vxservice
C. vea
D. vxsvc
E. vxsvcctrl
Answer: BD

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Exam Code: 250-309
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 97 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 An administrator is installing Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9). Where should the
administrator place the EV 9 databases and log files?
A. in the installation directory of the SQL server
B. on separate physical disks of the EV server
C. on separate physical disks of the SQL server
D. on direct attached storage of the EV server
Answer: C

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NO.2 An administrator is setting up Exchange managed folders and needs to apply the same retention
settings to Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9). Which action needs to happen to force EV 9
to synchronize the managed folder retentions?
A. in Desktop Folder policy, advanced settings, change the Archived Exchanged Managed Folders to
Normal
B. in Desktop policy, advanced settings, change the Archived Exchanged Managed Folders to Managed
C. in Mailbox policy, advanced settings, change the Archived Exchanged Managed Folders to Managed
D. in Mailbox policy, advanced settings, change the Archived Exchanged Managed Folders to Normal
Answer: C

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NO.3 An organization enables Outlook Anywhere (RPC over HTTP) for mobile users so users can retrieve
archived email through Outlook without being connected to a VPN. When end users who use this new
functionality try to restore an item, they are no longer prompted for where they want the item to be
restored. What is the reason for this change in behavior?
A. The system administrator has disabled custom restore locations in the policy.
B. The Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange Outlook Add-In is using HTTP-only functionality.
C. The policy RPC over HTTP Restrictions is set to Disable User Extensions.
D. The policy RPC over HTTP Restrictions is set to Disable Offline Vault.
Answer: B

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NO.4 A large enterprise organization requires Enterprise Vault Operations Manager. The company will have
five Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9) sites and three EV Directories. How many
monitoring databases should be planned?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 8
Answer: B

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NO.5 An organization is debating which Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange Outlook client to deploy
to end users. Which two features can be used if the HTTP-only Outlook Add-In is deployed? (Select two.)
A. Users can choose which archives to store items in.
B. Users can restore items to the Restored Items folder.
C. Users can use Vault Cache.
D. Users can cancel Pending Items.
E. Users can store and classify items with retention categories.
Answer: C,D

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NO.6 A backup administrator needs to protect the Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange server
environment. On which context menu in the Vault Admin Console does the administrator set and clear the
vault store backup mode?
A. the Enterprise Vault database
B. the Enterprise Vault services
C. the Enterprise Vault server
D. the Enterprise Vault site
Answer: D

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NO.7 Provided that appropriate options are set for users, which two actions can users perform on the Details
tab of the Vault Cache Properties dialog box? (Select two.)
A. view header and content synchronization status
B. start synchronization
C. disable synchronization
D. reverse synchronization
E. edit header and content synchronization categories
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 What are two benefits of enabling Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9) for Outlook Web
Access users? (Select two.)
A. offloads Archiving Task from EV 9 server
B. provides remote access to multiple user archives
C. enables remote access to archived public folder items
D. extracts mail from the Exchange Server
E. runs independent of EV 9 services
Answer: B,C

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NO.9 A backup administrator needs to protect the Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange server
environment. In order to perform a point-in-time recovery of the database, what must be backed up daily?
A. the EnterpriseVaultDirectory SQL database
B. the SQL transaction logs
C. the SQL databases
D. the EnterpriseVaultAuditing SQL database
Answer: B

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NO.10 A company is considering Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange for archiving their Exchange
systems. Personnel at the company are having trouble understanding the differences between their
existing backup environment and a separate archiving environment. Which two differentiate archiving
from a backup system? (Select two.)
A. provides retention periods for individual sets of data
B. requires operator intervention to perform a data restore request
C. provides duplicate copies for disaster recovery purposes
D. ingests data from the Exchange store to the archive storage layer
E. enables fast restore capabilities for mission critical data
Answer: A,D

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NO.11 What is the minimum version of the .NET framework required on the Enterprise Vault Server for
Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange?
A. .NET 4.0
B. .NET 3.5 SP1
C. .NET 1.1 and 2.0
D. .NET 2.0 and 3.0 SP2
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which information is held in the Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9) Directory Database?
A. archived items
B. configuration data for an EV 9 site
C. configuration information of indexed data
D. storage location of single instanced items
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which feature delegation must be set to Read/Write in Internet Information Services (IIS 7.0) before
installing Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange Outlook Web Access (OWA) Extensions?
A. .NET Trust Levels
B. .NET Roles
C. Failed Request Tracing Rules
D. IPv4 Address and Domain Restrictions
Answer: D

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NO.14 What are two physical data storage components of Mailbox Archiving in Symantec Enterprise Vault 9
for Exchange? (Select two.)
A. Indexes
B. Archives
C. Vault Store Group
D. Vault Store Partitions
E. Enterprise Vault Collector
Answer: A,D

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NO.15 A backup administrator needs to protect the Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange server
environment. The administrator has yet to run a backup of the vault store partition. The administrator has
Safety Copy enabled for the Vault Store. Given that the administrator has already performed some
mailbox archiving, what should occur after running the backup for the first time and clearing the archive
bit?
A. The safety copies are removed from the Exchange store.
B. The safety copies are removed from the storage queues.
C. The safety copies are flagged for removal for the next Storage Expiry.
D. The safety copies are flagged for removal when the services are restarted.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: ASC-066
Exam Name: Symantec (ASC EndPoint Management Assessment)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 83 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 When identifying risks, an administrator should prioritize them according to what? (Select two.)
A.likelihood of occurrence
B.order of occurrence
C.level of inconvenience to the customer
D.impact to the project
E.visibility to senior management
Answer: AD

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NO.2 Which two items can be stored in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)? (Select two.)
A.information related to the configuration of managed computers
B.an inventory of installed applications on managed computers
C.physical software packages to install applications on managed computers
D.Symantec Management Platform core web application settings
E.settings and configurations for the ASP.NET web application
Answer: AB

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NO.3 What is the primary goal of the assessment phase of the Client Management Suite service?
A.Determine solution requirements and expectations of all stakeholders within the project.
B.Determine the solution configuration of all components.
C.Define the solution architecture and provide hardware and software requirements.
D.Define the solution workflow in order to design the solution configuration.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which critical engagement meeting ensures all stakeholders have the same expectations of the goals
and deliverables of the project?
A.Customer Needs Assessment Meeting
B.Customer Engagement Planning Meeting
C.Business Requirements Meeting
D.Project Kick-off Meeting
Answer: B

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NO.5 How is resource scoping implemented?
A.by including the appropriate filters and organizational views and groups in a target's rules
B.by granting the permissions to appropriate organizational views and groups to a security role
C.by replacing the filters and organizational views and groups in a target with appropriate secure
collections
D.by creating multiple organizational views and groups, each containing the appropriate subset of
resources
Answer: B

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NO.6 What are two benefits of using Symantec's Service Delivery Methodology? (Select two.)
A.reduces the risk of project scope creep
B.minimizes project risk
C.provides proven delivery methodology
D.uses industry best practices
E.increases customer satisfaction
Answer: CD

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NO.7 Which SMP component is used to move processing off of the Notification Server?
A.Package Server
B.Task Server
C.Site Server
D.PXE Server
Answer: C

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NO.8 What should a consultant recommend to a customer as a post-engagement service offering?
A.ongoing tech support
B.additional licenses
C.new hardware and software
D.six month health check
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which two statements are correct when determining Notification Server hardware requirements?
(Select two.)
A.Hardware specification is directly proportional to the number of managed endpoints.
B.Optimizing individual solutions can decrease the supported managed endpoints.
C.Number of utilized solutions affects the maximum supported endpoint count.
D.MS SQL installed on the Notification Server increases the maximum supported endpoint count.
E.Placing site servers in the environment decreases the supported managed endpoints on a Notification
Server.
Answer: AC

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NO.10 Which two duties are performed by Site Servers? (Select two.)
A.move policies and tasks closer to their points of distribution
B.move network-intensive services closer to their points of distribution
C.move software and clients to the distribution pool
D.move memory intensive services to a different site
E.move processor-intensive services off of the Notification Server
Answer: BE

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NO.11 What is the primary purpose of Site Services?
A.decentralized administration
B.centralized administration
C.minimize WAN utilization
D.increase agent to Notification Server communications
Answer: C

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NO.12 How are console permissions assigned to resources on the Notification Server?
A.Security Accounts Management (SAM)
B.Organizational Views and Groups
C.Access Control Lists (ACL)
D.Filters and Targets
Answer: B

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NO.13 Before going to a customer site for solution deployment, what should a consultant check for?
A.places to stay and eat
B.product updates
C.competitive products
D.customer's competition
Answer: B

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NO.14 What is an organizational group?
A.an object that contains resources and other organizational groups
B.a list of users with a given set of permissions and privileges
C.a customized set of folders, item links, and web links
D.a report showing a selected organization of computers and users
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which two items should be associated with a site when configuring sites on the Notification Server?
(Select two.)
A.site services
B.clients
C.subnets
D.Notification Server
E.multi-cast addresses
Answer: AC

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NO.16 What is the Notification Server the primary component of?
A.SIM
B.SAM
C.Deployment Server
D.Symantec Management Platform
Answer: D

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NO.17 If a consultant fails to identify who will be responsible for post-engagement technical support, who will
end up being responsible?
A.the consultant
B.Symantec Support
C.the customer
D.the project manager
Answer: A

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NO.18 What is a Site Server?
A.any computer with a site service installed on it
B.any computer with software packages stored on it
C.any Notification Server assigned to be in a site
D.any server that is assigned to be in a site
Answer: A

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NO.19 What is an organizational view?
A.a hierarchical grouping of resources
B.a hierarchical list of user permissions
C.a customized set of folders, item links, and web links
D.a set of reports organized by computers and users
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which two factors can influence overall Client Management Suite design? (Select two.)
A.network bandwidth and topology
B.managed node count
C.Notification Server service pack version
D.change control process
E.database maintenance schedules
Answer: AB

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Exam Code: ST0-119
Exam Name: Symantec (Altiris (TM) Client Management Suite 7.1 Technical Assessmen)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 101 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 Which statement is true about the Application Metering feature of Inventory Solution?
A. It tracks and compares changes to application files and registry keys.
B. It monitors and denies the usage of applications on the network.
C. It gathers detailed information about application files.
D. It limits the usage of applications to purchased licenses.
Answer: C

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NO.2 An inventory policy is set to run weekly at 18:00 on Wednesdays and is present on all computers.
However, a user shuts down a laptop right after the inventory starts at 18:00 and turns it on the next
morning at 08:00. When will the inventory run?
A. Thursday morning at 08:00
B. next Wednesday evening at 18:00
C. Thursday evening at 18:00
D. never
Answer: B

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NO.3 What must be done after a managed computer has been patched?
A. Check the Software Update Package Integrity task.
B. Run a Software Inventory task.
C. Run a Microsoft Vulnerability Analysis task.
D. Update the Agent Configuration policy.
Answer: C

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NO.4 When reviewing compliance reports for the Microsoft products, the system administrator notices that
the data and bulletins have remained unchanged for two weeks. What should the administrator check to
address this issue?
A. Revise Software Update task
B. Import Patch Data for Microsoft policy
C. Patch Management Import task
D. Microsoft Compliance Update policy
Answer: B

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NO.5 A system administrator needs to quickly deploy Windows 7 to several new computers without
preconfigured operating systems. The administrator decides to use an existing Ghost image since the
necessary drivers have already been added to the DeployAnywhere database. The PXE Configuration is
set to respond only to known computers. How should the administrator proceed?
A. Use Ghost Solution Suite to distribute the image as the computers boot to the network.
B. Import the list of new computers into the Management Console and assign an imaging task.
C. Deploy an Automation Folder to the new computers to prepare them for imaging.
D. Configure PXE to respond to a known list of MAC addresses and deploy the images only to the new
systems.
Answer: B

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NO.6 A company is planning an In-Place Migration to Windows 7. They use PC Transplant to migrate the
personality. Which option will help reduce the network traffic when restoring the image.?
A. use File Preservation
B. use a higher compression
C. use unicast
D. deploy the OS without applications
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which Altiris Client Management Suite 7.1 solution denies the usage of applications on the network?
A. Software Management Solution
B. Application Metering Solution
C. Application Management Solution
D. Inventory Solution
Answer: D

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NO.8 In which area of the Symantec Management Console can a system administrator specify which users
have access to WMI, AMT, DASH, and other management technologies?
A. Credentials Management
B. Credential Access Manager
C. Security Role Manager
D. Out-of-Band Management
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which solution is included with Altiris Client Management Suite 7.1?
A. Help Desk Solution
B. Discovery Solution
C. pcAnywhere
D. Symantec System Recovery
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which Altiris Client Management Suite 7.1 solution tracks the installations of an application and how
often the application is used?
A. Application Management Solution
B. Deployment Solution
C. Application Metering Solution
D. Inventory Solution
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which type of component is included in the Software Catalog?
A. licenses
B. hotfixes
C. updates
D. uninstalls
Answer: A

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NO.12 The Software Update Policy Wizard is used to create the Patch Management policy, which is
distributed to manage computers. How can a system administrator disable unsupported operating
systems?
A. For the selected operating systems, delete the software bulletin that has been selected for installation.
B. For the selected operating systems, deselect the software bulletin that has been selected for
installation.
C. For the selected operating systems, disable the software policy.
D. For the selected operating systems, remove the software policy.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which configuration step should be completed before a computer image can be sent to a managed
computer without an existing operating system installed on its hard drive?
A. create preboot configurations
B. install an operating system on the hard drive and install the applicable agents
C. configure predefined computers
D. configure initial deployment
Answer: A

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NO.14 What are two Software Update Plug-in responsibilities? (Select two.)
A. gathers an inventory on all installed software and their associated service pack level
B. sends execution results of all software installed to the Notification Server
C .gathers specific inventory on supported operating systems, applications, and the associated service
pack level
D. sends execution results of applied software bulletins to the Notification Server
E. notifies users before a Managed Delivery policy executes
Answer: CD

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NO.15 Which two operating systems can be managed using pcAnywhere? (Select two.)
A. Linux
B. iOS
C. Android
D. Mac E.Unix
Answer: AD

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Exam Code: ST0-153
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec PGP Universal Server 3.2 Technical Assessment)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 67 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 Given the following details, which of the answers best describes what a user can do?A user who is not a
PGP Desktop user accesses a PGP NetShare encrypted folder.
A.The data can be decrypted
B.The user cannot access the share at all
C.The user can read but cannot move, copy or delete the files
D.The NTFS permissions determine what the user can do with the files, but the data remains encrypted
Answer:D

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NO.2 How did you add Internal Users to the PGP Universal Server?
A.Receiving email
B.Installing the server
C.Sending email
D.All of the above
Answer:C

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NO.3 How could I verify user keys for a partner using SMIME?
A.By placing the partner's CA in the list of Trusted Keys
B.By adding an Organization Certificate to my PGP Universal Server
C.By splitting my ADK
D.PGP Universal Server automatically trusts all non-PGP SMIME servers
Answer:A

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NO.4 How do the encrypt and sign buttons interact with policy?
A.They bypass it
B.They do not bypass it, they use the Standalone chain
C.They only work when the server is online and the Outbound policy rule has been enabled
D.None of the above are true
Answer:D

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8.How do you create an ADK?
A.It is automatically created and added to the server upon installation
B.You purchase one from PGP Corporation
C.From the Organization Keys tab
D.From PGP Desktop
Answer:D

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9.How does a cluster know if a server needs to be updated?
A.Highwatermark
B.Web Messenger replication
C.Smart topology
D.Timestamps
Answer:A

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10.How does the “Prefer Notes native encoding over PGP encoding” feature work?
A.External emails are PGP encrypted but internal ones are Notes encrypted
B.Internal emails are PGP encrypted but external ones are Notes encrypted
C.All emails are Notes encrypted
D.The user is prompted to choose their encryption type
Answer:A

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11.How does Web Messenger replication work?
A.There is no replication
B.Messages can be replicated to all servers or a number of servers or not replicated
C.Messages are stored on all servers or not replicated
D.Messages can only be replicated to a number of servers or not replicated
E.Messages are always replicated on all servers unless it is a DMZ server
Answer: B

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12.How is the private key of the ADK protected?
A.The private key should be split into several shares and given to designated users.
B.The ADK keypair is stored on the server
C.The private key is protected by the Ignition Key
D.The ADK doesn't have a private key
Answer:A

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13.How many backups are kept by default?
A.7
B.30
C.5
D.5, not configurable
Answer:C

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14.If a user belongs to 3 different groups, which one will give this user policy?
A.The first one created on the server if there is no order specified
B.The Excluded group if he belongs to it
C.Wherever LDAP puts them first
D.The Everyone group
Answer:B

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15.If Alice has forgotten the passphrase for her encrypted boot volume, what can her administrator do?
A.Use the WDE-ADMIN group access to authenticate at BootGuard and change the passphrase
B.Check the box for "Automatically decrypt boot disk upon power on" in Consumer Policy
C.Use the Account lockout mechanism to reset her passphrase
D.Use the Whole Disk Recovery Token
E.Reset her passphrase in PGP Universal Server
Answer: D

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16.A user has never dealt with another employee but is able to send them secure email because they
have a PGP Universal Server.This is possible because of:
A.This is an example of the SMIME Web of Trust
B.Manual verification
C.This is not possible with PGP products
D.A trust relationship
Answer:D

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18.If you did not specify network settings during the installation process, which of the following IP
addresses would initially be assigned to your PGP Universal Server?
A.172.16.10.100/24
B.192.168.1.100/24
C.10.1.1.100/24
D.none of the above
Answer:B

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19.If you had to manually type in your PGP Universal Server address to administer it, what would it be?
A.http://Key.domain:443
B.https://Key.domain:9000
C.https://Keys.domain
D.https://Keys.domain:9000
Answer:D

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20.If you move an encrypted file out of a PGP NetShare protected folder and onto your Windows desktop
what happens?
A.The file is decrypted
B.The file remains encrypted
C.The file remains encrypted only if it is protected by the blacklist
D.If advanced user mode is enabled it stays encrypted
E.It is decrypted if the file is data created by an application on the blacklist
Answer: B

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NO.5 How do PGP Universal Server clusters resolve conflicts where a user account is being changed on two
or more servers at the same time?
A.Highwatermark
B.Web Messenger replication
C.Smart topology
D.Timestamps
Answer:D

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NO.6 Given the following details, which of the answers best describes what a user can do? A user who is not
a PGP NetShare user but is a PGP Desktop user attempts to access a PGP NetShare encrypted folder...
A.The data can be decrypted
B.The user cannot access the share at all
C.The user can read but cannot move, copy or delete the files
D.The NTFS permissions determine what the user can do with the files, but the data remains encrypted
Answer:B

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Exam Code: 250-512
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Data Loss Prevention 11.5)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 161 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 What is a possible solution when a Network Discover server is unable to scan a remote file server?
A. mount the IPC$ share on the file server
B. verify that the target file server is a Windows 2000 server
C. use the fully qualified name (FQDN) of the server
D. verify that the file server has .NET services running
Answer: C

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NO.2 An approved Endpoint device has been configured and added as an exception to a policy that blocks
the transfer of sensitive data. Data transfers to these approved Endpoint devices are still being blocked.
What should the Data Loss Prevention administrator do to resolve this?
A. disable and enable the policy involved for the changes to take effect
B. edit the exception rule to ensure Match On is set to "Attachments"
C. verify that the proper device ID or class has been entered
D. assign the Endpoint device configuration to all the Endpoint servers
Answer: C

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NO.3 What are two benefits of the Symantec Data Loss Prevention 11.5 security architecture? (Select two.)
A. Communication is initiated by the detection servers inside the firewall.
B. SSL communication is used for user access to the Enforce Platform.
C. Endpoint Agent to Endpoint Server communication uses the Triple Data Encryption Standard (Triple
DES).
D. Confidential information captured by system components is stored using Advanced Encryption
Standards (AES) symmetric keys.
E. All indexed data uploaded into the Enforce Platform is protected with a two-way hash.
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 How can an administrator validate that once a policy is updated and saved it has been enabled on a
specific detection server?
A. check the status of the policy on the policy list page
B. check to see whether the policy was loaded under System > Servers > Alerts
C. check the policy and validate the date and time it was last updated
D. check to see whether the policy was loaded under System > Servers > Events
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which product can replace a confidential document residing on a share with a marker file explaining
why the document was removed?
A. Network Discover
B. Network Protect
C. Endpoint Prevent
D. Endpoint Discover
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which product must run on a physical server?
A. Endpoint Prevent
B. Network Monitor
C. Enforce D. Network Prevent
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which option describes the three-tier installation type for Symantec Data Loss Prevention?
A. Install the database, the Enforce Server, and a detection server all on the same computer.
B. Install the Oracle database and the Enforce Server on the same computer, then install detection
servers on separate computers.
C. Install the Oracle Client (SQL*Plus and Database Utilities) on three detection servers.
D. Install the Oracle database, the Enforce Server, and a detection server on separate computers.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which two components are required for the Symantec Data Loss Prevention for Tablets solution in
addition to the Tablet Prevent and Enforce servers? (Select two.)
A. DLP Agent
B. Virtual Private Network Gateway
C. Web Proxy
D. 2010 Exchange Server
E. Mobile Device Management
Answer: B,C

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NO.9 What are two possible ways to provide incident match text information? (Select two.)
A. CSV export
B. Email notification
C. Reporting API
D. Syslog notification
E. XML export
Answer: C,E

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NO.10 Which profile contains information to enable the VPN on Demand functionality for the Data Loss
Prevention for Tablets solution.?
A. DLP Agent profile
B. SCEP profile
C. iOS profile
D. VPN client profile
Answer: C

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NO.11 A user attempts to run Lookup Attributes manually on an incident. On the Incident List page under
Incident Actions, the option for Lookup Attributes is missing. Which section in the Plugins.properties file is
misconfigured?
A. Plugin Execution Chain is undefined.
B. Attribute Lookup parameters is set to "message".
C. Automatic plugin reload is set to false.
D. Automatic Lookup is set to false.
Answer: A

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NO.12 A Network Monitor server has been installed and the networking components configured accordingly.
The server is receiving traffic, but fails to detect incidents. Running Wireshark indicates that the desired
traffic is reaching the detection server. What is the most likely cause for this behavior?
A. The mirrored port is sending corrupted packets.
B. The wrong interface is selected in the configuration.
C. The configuration is set to process GET requests.
D. The communication to the database server is interrupted.
Answer: D

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NO.13 What is the function of the Remote Indexer?
A. to create Index Document Matching (IDM) profiles and Exact Data Matching (EDM) profiles on a
remote server
B. to create Exact Data Matching (EDM) profiles on a remote server
C. to create policy templates on a remote server
D. to create Index Document Matching (IDM) profiles on a remote server
Answer: B

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NO.14 What is one benefit of using FlexResponse for Network Discover?
A. Response rules trigger varying actions depending on which DLP Agent created the incident.
B. An email can be encrypted as it is being transmitted.
C. Displayed incident data can be redacted from the Data Loss Prevention interface automatically.
D. Customizable incident remediation actions can be manually executed.
Answer: D

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NO.15 An administrator has completed the example document training process, but is having difficulty deciding
whether or not to accept a VML profile. Where can the administrator find information regarding the quality
of each training set at a granular, per-fold level?
A. machinelearning_training_process.log file
B. machinelearning_native_filereader.log file
C. machinelearning_training.log file
D. machinelearning_native_manager.log file
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which detection server requires two physical network interface cards?
A. Network Protect
B. Network Discover
C. Endpoint Discover
D. Network Monitor
Answer: B

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NO.17 A scanner fails to return results upon completion of the scan process. Which file should be removed to
eliminate previous scan issues?
A. scanner_typeScanner.cfg
B. Clean.exe
C. ScannerControllerLogging.properties
D. logs
Answer: A

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NO.18 In which two ways can the default listener port for a detection server be modified? (Select two.)
A. through the Enforce user interface under System > Overview
B. by editing the Communication.properties file on a detection server
C. through the Enforce user interface under Manage > Policies
D. by editing the MonitorController.properties file on a detection server
E. by editing the jaas.config file on a detection server
Answer: A,B

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NO.19 Which two should be used to collect log information from Enforce servers? (Select two.)
A. enable the VontuSNMP service and set the community strings accordingly
B. use the Log Collection and Configuration tool
C. navigate manually to the log directory of the Enforce server installation
D. .access the Enforce Log Viewer page at https://<VONTU_SRV>/logs?view=true
E. use dbgmonitor from sysinternals to connect to the debug output of the service
Answer: B,C

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NO.20 Which is the correct traffic flow for the Symantec Data Loss Prevention for Tablets solution?
A. iPad > VPN > Tablet Server > Exchange Server > final destination
B. iPad > VPN > Web proxy > Tablet Server > final destination
C. iPad > VPN > Web proxy > Tablet Server > Enforce Server > final destination
D. iPad > VPN > Tablet Server > Web proxy > final destination
Answer: B

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Exam Code: ST0-172
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec NetBackup 7.5 for Windows Technical Assessment)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 108 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 By default, new media is assigned to which volume pool during robot inventory without a configured
barcode rule?
A. Symantec NetBackup pool
B. Scratch pool
C. Default pool
D. None pool
Answer: A

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NO.2 Refer to the exhibit.
A backup is about to run, which is being sent to the "servers" volume pool, with a retention level of 1. The
host properties displayed below have been enabled. allow multiple retentions per media allow backups to
span tape media allow media overwrite: ANSI, CPIO, DBR Which tape would Symantec NetBackup 7.5
use for the backup if tape T00306 is unavailable?
A. T00301
B. T00303
C. T00305
D. T00308
E. T00309
Answer: C

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NO.3 A backup has allocated a tape labeled SQL001 for a SQL backup job from the scratch pool and has
assigned this tape to the Symantec NetBackup volume pool. An administrator now needs to move
SQL001 to a previously created volume pool called SQLTapes. How is this accomplished?
A. right-click SQL001 and select Change
B. expire SQL001, right-click SQL001, and select Change
C. right-click SQL001 and select Move
D. edit the barcode rules and inventory the library
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which two are used to change the status of a disk pool? (Select two.)
A. Nbdevquery
B. Device Monitor
C. Devices > Disk Pools
D. Nbdevstatus
E. nbdevconfig
Answer: B,E

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NO.5 A Symantec NetBackup 7.5 master server has a Microsoft Windows policy that protects over 500
servers using the directive ALL_LOCAL_DRIVES. The backup window for this policy is between
3:00 PM and 5:00 PM and is unshared with any other policy. When the backup window for this policy is
open, the overall performance of the disk storage unit gets degraded. Which setting should the
administrator modify to reduce the number of concurrent streams writing to the disk storage unit to 10
during the backup window?
A. disable multiplexing on the policy schedules
B. set the "Maximum backup copies" host property to 10
C. enable multiplexing for the storage unit and set the value to 10
D. enable the "Limit Jobs per policy" attribute
Answer: D

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NO.6 Refer to the exhibit.
What will be the outcome of the policy shown in the exhibit?
A. The client will compress then encrypt the data before sending it to the media server.
B. The client will compress the data and then the media server will use tape drive encryption.
C. The client will send the data to the media server, which will compress and then encrypt the data.
D. The client will encrypt the data before sending it to the media server.
Answer: A

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NO.7 A tape library had the robot firmware upgraded and now the robot is reading the barcodes with
additional characters. What can be done so that Symantec NetBackup 7.5 uses the same characters as
before the firmware upgrade occurred?
A. update the Media ID Generation setting
B. update the Robot Type mapping
C. update the Media Type mapping
D. update the Barcode Rules setting
Answer: A

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NO.8 A backup on tape is due to expire in one week. The administrator needs to keep the image available
for restore indefinitely. Which two methods can be used to accomplish this goal? (Select two.)
A. use the bpexpdate command to change the expiration date of the image
B. use the bpretlevel command to customize the retention level
C. use the bpimmedia command to freeze the tape
D. use the bpduplicate command to create a copy with an infinite retention
E. use the vmchange command to change the expiration date of the tape
Answer: A,D

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NO.9 A Symantec NetBackup 7.5 administrator at a hospital needs to store secure tape copies of protected
data to an offsite location. How can an administrator automatically eject tape media daily and create
detailed reports.?
A. enable the Encryption attribute on the vault policy to perform automated ejects and create reports
B. use tape drives that support hardware encryption and use a Vault policy to perform automated ejects
and create reports
C. use tape drives that support hardware encryption and use a storage lifecycle policy to perform
automated ejects and create reports
D. configure a storage lifecycle policy to enable automatic ejects and create reports, then enable the
Encryption attribute on the policy
Answer: B

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NO.10 An administrator must recover an expired image from a tape where only one remaining copy exists
and there are other unexpired images on the tape. How should the administrator proceed?
A. run the Tape Contents report
B. run an import on the tape
C. duplicate the unexpired images
D. verify the tape
Answer: B

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NO.11 An administrator has a tape that has been previously used by Symantec NetBackup 7.5 for client
backups but no longer contains valid data. The barcode has been changed and the tape has been moved
to a different Symantec NetBackup domain. Which action will allow this tape to be used in the new
domain?
A. move the tape to the scratch volume pool
B. relabel the tape
C. deassign the media
D. inventory the robotic library
Answer: B

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NO.12 During catalog recovery the DR file is unavailable but the images database is intact. Which step should
the administrator take first to resolve the issue?
A. identify catalog backup from the images database
B. run import on all media in the robot
C. import catalog image to disk to a temporary location
D. run bprecover -wizard from the command line with additional switches
Answer: A

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NO.13 An administrator needs to protect a large volume of data with millions of files to tape. Which policy
feature should the administrator use?
A. Use accelerator
B. Deduplication
C. Use multiple streams
D. FlashBackup
Answer: D

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NO.14 The Symantec NetBackup administrator is concerned that the media server deduplication pool is using
more space than estimated. In which two places can the administrator find the amount of space used in
the media server deduplication pool? (Select two.)
A. Reports > Disk Storage Status
B. Device Monitor > Disk Pools
C. Reports > Disk Logs
D. Devices > Disk Pools
E. Reports > Disk Pool Status
Answer: D,E

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NO.15 An administrator tries to suspend an active job from the Symantec NetBackup Activity Monitor but
discovers that the option is grayed out. What is preventing the administrator from suspending the job?
A. Encryption is enabled.
B. The parent job is still active.
C. Multiplexing is enabled.
D. Checkpoint restart is disabled.
Answer: D

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