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Exam Code: 000-M65
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Lotus XPages Technical Sales Mastery Test v1)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which of the following is NOT one of the performance enhancements to XPages in the 8.5.1 release?
A. New properties for better control of the JSF lifecycle
B. Domino Designer built on top of Eclipse
C. JavaScript interpreter performance
D. End user experience / browser rendering
Answer: B

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NO.2 What are some of the questions you should ask yourself when analyzing your existing Domino NSF
application for modernizing with XPages?
A. All of the below
B. How much UI code do you have?
C. How complex are your subs and functions?
D. How do you use Rich Text, if any at all?
Answer: A

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NO.3 How are iNotes (DWA) widgets enabled?
A. formsXX.nsf
B. Mail policies
C. Dojo toolkit
D. Mail template settings
Answer: B

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NO.4 Where should a Developer go to freely manipulate inline style coding for an object?
A. Design
B. Source
C. Properties
D. Controls
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following provides an integrated development environment for building XPages
applications?
A. Lotus Domino Messaging Express
B. Lotus Domino Administrator
C. Lotus Domino Designer
D. Lotus Collaboration Express
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-030
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Service Request Manager V7.2 Implementation)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 202 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which minimum data must match in the Service Level Agreement (SLA) and the record to allow IBM
Tivoli Service Request Manager V7.2 to logically select an SLA to apply to a work order or ticket record?
A. Escalation Point
B. Data on the Conditions tab
C. Data on the Service Level Agreement tab
D. Start Date, End Date, Object, Commitment
Answer:B

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NO.2 The importreport.cmd batch file is available to import reports in IBM Tivoli Service Request Manager
V7.2.Which statement is true about the importreport.cmd batch file?
A. It can import BIRT and CRYSTAL reports.
B. It can import only one report or library at a time.
C. It can import multiple reports and libraries at one time but only for BIRT reports.
D. It can import multiple reports and libraries at one time but only for CRYSTAL reports.
Answer:C

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NO.3 What is the purpose of the Report Level Security function in the Report Administration application?
A. It allows an administrator to set the report security for a Person Group.
B. It allows an administrator to set the security for a single report on the Security tab.
C. It allows an administrator to set the security for a selected type of report or all reports.
D. It allows an administrator to set the group security for an application and all reports in the selected
application.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Why is the httpd.conf file edited when configuring the ability to link or attach documents in IBM Tivoli
Service Request Manager V7.2?
A. to identify the root directory for attached documents
B. to specify the type of documents that can be attached
C. to identify what documents to exclude from attachment
D. to specify the number of documents that can be attached
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which statement is true when configuring a new toolbar icon?
A. All toolbar items must have an access key.
B. Icons can be nested by providing a subposition value for the icon.
C. A new EAR file must be built to contain any new GIF images displayed on the toolbar.
D. New toolbar images can be uploaded through the file upload capability in Application Designer.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which application is used to enable auditing on attributes?
A. Classifications
B. System Properties
C. Application Designer
D. Database Configuration
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is copied by the system when an escalation is duplicated?
A. All information from the existing escalation.
B. Information from the existing escalation with the exception of actions.
C. Only information from the existing escalation in the header of the escalation.
D. All information from the existing escalation, header, and escalation points but not actions and
notifications.
Answer: A

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NO.8 When in the Actions application, what are two valid actions available for an Incident? (Choose two.)
A. Close SR
B. Apply SLA
C. Create Notification
D. Workflow Auto Reject
E. Create Response Plan
Answer:A,D

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NO.9 What can be defined when creating an escalation that is enabled when a record reaches a defined
escalation point?
A. Multiple escalation points and each escalation point can be associated with only one action and one
notification.
B. Only one escalation point per action or notification to associate with the escalation before activating the
escalation.
C. Only one escalation point per action or notification to associate with the escalation before validating the
escalation.
D. Multiple escalation points and corresponding actions or notifications can be associated with the
escalation before activating the escalation.
Answer:D

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NO.10 How can an administrator show a KPI of incidents in the NEW status?
A. Create the KPI in the Incident application.
B. Create the KPI in the Application Designer.
C. Configure the Start Center to display the KPI.
D. Run reports in the Incident application and view the KPI.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which action must be taken before an Enterprise Service can be used in an integration?
A. It must be enabled.
B. It must be activated.
C. A backup version must be saved.
D. A process revision must be made.
Answer:A

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NO.12 Which two properties of a Start Center query can be edited by the owner of the query after it has been
saved? (Choose two.)
A. Site
B. Status
C. Clause
D. Description
E. Owner Group
Answer:C,D

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NO.13 Which statement is true about creating a self service request?
A. Multiple assets can be selected.
B. Single CIs and single assets can be selected.
C. Multiple CIs and single assets can be selected.
D. Multiple configuration items (CIs) can be selected.
Answer:B

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NO.14 How can a current result set be changed in the Start Center?
A. click Display Settings
B. click Update Start Center
C. click the pencil icon in the portlet
D. remove the portlet and insert a new one
Answer: C

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NO.15 The Search Solutions application results are not ordered by rank. Which XML file can be modified to
order results by rank?
A. library.xml
B. solrank.xml
C. solution.xml
D. searchsol.xml
Answer:D

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NO.16 Which two values are used in determining the internal priority of service desk tickets? (Choose two.)
A. Impact
B. Critical
C. Urgency
D. Indicated
E. Reported
Answer:A,C

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NO.17 Which statement about survey questions is correct?
A. A question can only be edited if the survey status is Draft.
B. A question can be deleted while in Active or Archive status.
C. A question can be moved from Active to Archive status once it is assigned or associated to a survey.
D. A question will appear in the selection list when selecting questions to add to a survey once a question
is in Archive status.
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which types of service can be associated with a Service Group?
A. BOTH, ACQUIRE, RENDER
B. BOTH, REQUEST, RENDER
C. BOTH, ACQUIRE, DELIVER
D. BOTH, PROVIDE, PROCURE
Answer:D

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NO.19 Which two types of objects can be defined as Recipients in a communication template? (Choose two.)
A. Role
B. User
C. Craft
D. Labor
E. Person
Answer: A,D

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NO.20 Which Application Designer function must be performed to obtain the files required to modify lookup
IDs?
A. Export System XML
B. Export Application Definition
C. Add/Modify Signature Options
D. Duplicate Application Definition
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-055
Exam Name: IBM (Rational Automation Framework for WebSphere)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which rafw command option lists all available actions for a given scope.?
A. rafw -t
B. rafw -h
C. rafw -d
D. rafw -l
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which two commands can be used to add actions to Build Forge as libraries? (Choose two.)
A. rafw
B. rafwEnvBuild
C. integrateToBF
D. manageBFLibs
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 Which three objects must be installed on the framework server? (Choose three.)
A. WebSphere Application Server Base
B. Build Forge Agent
C. RAFW
D. Build Forge Management Console
E. WebSphere Portal Deployment Manager
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.4 Which rafw command option is used to get inline help for a given action?
A. rafw -t
B. rafw -h
C. rafw -d
D. rafw -l
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which property in the configure.properties file sets the location of the media directory on target
systems running Linux?
A. OS_RAFW_HOME
B. LINUX_RAFW_HOME
C. LINUX_MEDIA_ROOT
D. RAFW_MEDIA_ROOT
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which three artifacts can be created using the RAFW_EnvironmentGenerationWizard project in the
Environment wizard? (Choose three.)
A. the RAFW collector
B. the actual cell in WebSphere
C. the <env>-<cell> project in Build Forge
D. the <env>-<cell> environment in Build Forge
E. the cell definition in RAFW_HOME/user/environments
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.7 How is additional logging and tracing for debug purposes enabled in RAFW?
A. use the RAFW_TRACE environment variable
B. change the source code in RAFW_HOME/product/lib/jython/Logger.py
C. set the .level key to TRACE in the logging.properties file in RAFW_HOME
D. change the .level key in configure.properties file in RAFW_HOME to TRACE
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which two options for the integrateToBF command add actions to Build Forge as libraries? (Choose
two.)
A. createAll
B. createUITab
C. createLibraries
D. createIntegrationArtifacts
Answer: A,C

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NO.9 Where is the configuration for the Build Forge integration stored?
A. in the build forge database
B. the configure.properties file in RAFW_HOME
C. in the buildforge.conf file in BF_HOME/product
D. in the buildforge.properties file in RAFW_HOME
Answer: D

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NO.10 What is the purpose of the rafw -t command option?
A. to execute an action on a target computer
B. to list all available actions for a given scope
C. to copy configuration data files from one scope to another in the environment tree
D. to import configuration data from an existing cell to its cell definition in the environment tree
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-552
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Optim Implementation for Distributed Systems (2009))
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 129 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 You are installing IBM Optim into an Oracle environment. Which statement is correct about user
permissions?
A. The installation user requires the DBA role.
B. The installation user is the only user that can run Optim.
C. The installation user's permissions must be deleted once the installation is complete and all DB Aliases
are created.
D. The installation user must have the SELECT ANY DICTIONARY role.
Answer: D

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NO.2 You can use the silent installer in a UNIX environment to install the Optim Server. The silent installer is
NOT available for which two of the following platforms? (Choose two.)
A. HP-UX 11i v2
B. Red Hat Linux 3
C. IBM AIX 5
D. Solaris 8
E. SUSE 10
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 The Optim Directory is built in an Oracle Database. If the project Database is Unicode enabled, which of
the following is true?
A. The Optim Directory can be enabled as either Unicode or Non-Unicode.
B. The Optim Directory and the DB Alias must both be initialized the same, either both as Unicode or both
as Non-Unicode.
C. The Optim Directory and the DB Alias both must be Unicode enabled.
D. The DB Alias must be enabled as Non-Unicode.
Answer: C

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NO.4 When performing an archive process that uses a Storage Profile, which action could be performed as a
result of using the storage profile?
A. Creates a connection to the database for use by the storage management device.
B. Creates a connection to the storage management device and copies an Archive File to a backup
device.
C. Creates a storage allocation parameter for the storage or file management system.
D. Creates a duplicate of the existing information from the Archive Repository on the storage
management device.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which databases are directly supported on distributed platforms for Optim Test Data Management?
A. DB2 LUW, Oracle, Microsoft SQL Server, Microsoft Access
B. Sybase, Informix, Progress, DB2 LUW, MySQL, Microsoft SQL Server
C. Informix, Microsoft SQL Server, Sybase, DB2 LUW, Oracle
D. Microsoft Access, MySQL, Progress, DB2 LUW, Oracle, Sybase
Answer: C

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NO.6 You can specify the default minimum retention period for protecting Archive Files on Centera from
deletion. How is the minimum retention period calculated?
A. from the time Centera copies the file
B. from the time the Archive Process copies the file to Centera
C. from the time that the Archive Process copies the file to the local file system
D. from the time Centera copies the file from the local file system
Answer: B

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NO.7 Given the following command-line export command: PR0CMND /EXPORT TYPE=EX NAME=%.%
Which required parameter is missing from this syntax?
A. The name of the export file is missing.
B. The name of the report file is missing.
C. The name of the Optim Directory is missing.
D. The name of the parameter file is missing.
Answer: A

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NO.8 You have installed the Optim Server on an AIX system. The system is configured with various internal
and external storage options attached to the server. Where should the Optim Temporary Work folder be
placed?
A. the attached archive appliance
B. the attached NAS device
C. the system's internal disk drives
D. the attached SAN device
Answer: C

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NO.9 When you specify the default minimum retention period for protecting Archive Files on a managed
storage system from deletion, when will the files be deleted?
A. When the expiration date on the Archive File has been reached, Optim issues a request to the
managed storage system to delete the file.
B. After the minimum retention period expires, the file can be deleted from Optim.
C. After the minimum retention period expires, the file can be marked deleted by the managed storage
system.
D. After the retention period is reached, the file will be automatically deleted by Optim.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Where can the Optim Directory be stored?
A. DB2 UDB for z/OS running on mainframe platform
B. SQL Server running on UNIX platform
C. DB2 LUW running on Windows, UNIX or Linux platforms
D. Microsoft Access database running on Windows platforms
Answer: C

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NO.11 When installing Optim, which of the following is true?
A. ODM/Optim Connect must be installed during the Optim Installation process.
B. ODM/Optim Connect must be installed after Optim is successfully installed.
C. ODM/Optim Connect can be installed either during the Optim installation, or after Optim is successfully
installed.
D. ODM/Optim Connect is not a part of the Optim Installation.
Answer: C

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NO.12 The customer has critical production systems against which Optim archive and delete processes are
run. If Optim archive and delete processes are run at the wrong time, it will impact business. Which of the
following will resolve the issue?
A. Using the Optim Configuration program, initialize Optim Security and assign a Security Administrator.
For each role, grant or deny the appropriate privileges.
B. Configure object security, which will deny access to sensitive production objects.
C. By default, the Access Control Domain allows or denies access to particular Optim functions.
D. Configure program security to restrict access to the Optim executables.
Answer: A

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NO.13 When installing Optim, what is the minimum disk space needed for the database.?
A. 50gb
B. 50mb
C. As required
D. 500mb
Answer: C

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NO.14 You must have a password to review and change Product Options. What is the default password?
A. "null"
B. "softech"
C. "optim"
D. "ibm"
Answer: C

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NO.15 Consider the following Archive file name that is defined using macros:
/home/<$USER>/archives/<MON $SEQ6>.AF Which filenames would be generated from this macro?
(Note: Assume that the file was created on Monday, February 2, 2009, by the person with the user ID of
dev3x and the last sequential number assigned was 263.)
A. /dev3x/Feb000263.AF
B. /home/dev3x/archives/MON 264.af
C. /home/dev3x/archives/Feb264.af
D. /home/dev3x/archives/MON000264.AF
Answer: D

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NO.16 What will cause a failure during an Archive Process?
A. An Optim Connect or ODBC definition does not exist for the Archive Collection.
B. An Archive File Collection already contains more than 12 Archive Files.
C. An invalid Archive File is automatically added to an Archive File Collection.
D. An Archive Process will always complete unless the gnore Errors?check box is selectedAn Archive
Process will always complete unless the ?gnore Errors?check box is selected
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which two statements are true about Optim security roles? (Choose two.)
A. Functional Privilege classes such as Create New Actions and Create New Definitions can be controlled
using Roles.
B. Privileges such as Archive Request and Compare Request can be controlled using Roles
C. By default, the Access Control Domain allows access to all Optim Actions and privileges. Only denial of
privileges can be assigned using roles.
D. Default Roles may not be modified to allow or deny Functional Privilege Classes and New Action
Privileges.
E. Edit the FAD (File Access Definition) to control which roles has access to all of the files.
Answer: A,B

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NO.18 Optim objects are saved in the Optim Directory. Which two statements are true about saving Optim
objects? (Choose two.)
A. Optim objects like Column Maps, Table Maps and Access Definitions are saved with two-part names.
B. Only Optim relationships are saved in the Optim Directory.
C. If a Column Map is noted as local, with no name, it is used only once and then discarded.
D. An Archive Request cannot be saved in the Optim Directory.
E. There may be more than one Optim object with the same name as long as they are different types of
objects.
Answer: A,E

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NO.19 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the information from the Relationships tab of an Access Definition, and the associated Show Steps
report as shown in the exhibit, what is the reason that the ITEM 552.S table is listed as UNTRAVERSED?
A. Options (2) must be enabled for the relationship between DETAILS and ITEM 552.S.
B. The DETAILS table is designated as a Reference Table so all relationships are ignored for this table.
C. Options (1) must be disabled for the relationship between DETAILS and ITEM 552.S.
D. No relationship exists between ITEM 552.S and any other table.
Answer: B

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NO.20 You are planning an installation of IBM Optim. Which two configurations are supported for the Optim
Server and Optim Directory? (Choose two.)
A. DB2 database running on Ubuntu Linux
B. DB2 or Oracle databases running on AIX
C. Oracle or Microsoft SQL Server databases running on AIX
D. DB2 or Informix databases running on Sun Solaris
E. DB2 or Microsoft Access databases running on Windows XP Professional
Answer: B,D

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Exam Code: 000-M43
Exam Name: IBM (IBM SUT Intermediate Level Technical Sales Mastery Test V1.0)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 52 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Why is it advisable to have at least one PNP for SUT subscribers and a separate PNP and endpoint for
the customers PBX.?
A. It allows Display Number Modification (DNM) rules to be created separately for subscribers calls to to
the PBX, and incoming calls from the PBX.
B. It allows digits to be added/deleted for the call coming from the PBX.
C. SUT subscribers needs extra attention during configuration.
D. A and B
Answer: D

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NO.2 Assume there is a company using SUT with 1 Headquarter and 2 locations each in Europe, America
and Asia. In each site there are 100 subscribers and there is one PBX and one PSTN Gateway. In the
Headquarter, there is a Media Server for Announcements and Conferencing. Each subscriber has a SUT
Client and a Desk phone. Which of the answers below would match to a best practice numbering plan
configuration?
A. One common numbering plan and ten private numbering plans.
B. One common numbering plan and nine private numbering plans.
C. One common numbering plan and six private numbering plans.
D. One common numbering plan and three private numbering plans.
E. Three common numbering plans and three private numbering plans.
Answer: B

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NO.3 The following is true of a business group (BG)?
A. Each BG has at least one common numbering plan (CNP).
B. Each BG has at least one private numbering plan (PNP).
C. There is no geographical boundary for a BG.
D. A and B
E. B and C
Answer: E

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NO.4 What are mandatory parameters that need to be adjusted at both end points of a SIP trunk?
A. The MTU size.
B. The preferred codec.
C. The Music On Hold number.
D. The target IP address and the port number.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following is correct regarding SUT configurations?
A. There is no conference server available in the small SUT configuration, only in the large SUT
configuration.
B. Besides the Sametime Server, a small SUT configuration needs one single server while a large SUT
configuration needs three servers.
C. One media server is required per location.
D. The small SUT configuration uses one server for TAS and Media Server.
E. A and D
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-M79
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Initiate Master Data Service Support Mastery Test v1)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Your customer reports a performance problem with the Master Data Engine using an Oracle database.
Which of the following materials are needed to diagnose the performance problem?
A. Oracle AWR (Automatic Workload Repository) report
B. Master Data Engine logs with MAD_TIMER logging enabled
C. Entity Manager logs with MAD_TIMER logging enabled
D. all of the above
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which tab in Initiate Inspector should be selected when you need to unlink a Record from an Entity.?
A. Records
B. Attribute History
C. Linkage Details
D. Relationships
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following DOES NOT represent a valid store of Initiate knowledge that can be referenced
for troubleshooting?
A. Knowledge Base on website
B. Infocenters (online product documentation library)
C. online training courses
D. LDAP repository
Answer: D

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NO.4 In which of the following places can you NOT find the detailed descriptions for the Initiate Java SDK
methods and parameters?
A. In the doc directory included with the Java SDK installation software.
B. The Java SDK Reference Guide document that was included with your software.
C. Infocenters
D. By pressing F1 (Help) in the Initiate I.D.E. for Java.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following is NOT a critical operating environment factor which can impact Initiate's system
performance?
A. Application log files named outside of standard conventions.
B. Network bandwidth between Master Data Service server and database server.
C. CPU usage on server running the Master Data Service.
D. Master Data Service logfile verbosity setting.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-M42
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Lotus Sametime Unified Telephony Basic Tech Sales Mas v1)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which tool is used to prepare the configuration information for the TAS installation?
A. A text editor is used to put all TAS configurations into the responsefile.txt file
B. A tool with the name NCPE is used to create a node.cfg file
C. There is no tool necessary. The configuration is requested during installation.
D. The configuration tool YAST is used
Answer: A

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NO.2 How many possibilities does one have to make a SUT conference call?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: B

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NO.3 To make a "drag-and-drop" conference, the user.?
A. selects all other users and clicks to start the conference.
B. clicks for conference and then adds users one by one.
C. asks operator to add the next user in the existing conference.
D. selects new user and drag and drops on the current call.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: LOT-918
Exam Name: IBM (Developing Portals & Web Apps IBM WebSphere Portlet Fact 7.0)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Anna has been testing a model and is concerned about the time certain actions seem to be taking. Her
development environment is a high-end system, and other portlets she has developed have not exhibited
the kind of response time lag that she and her testers perceive. She suspects one of the data services
builders is experiencing network latency, but is unsure where the real problem lies. What actions can she
take to help isolate the performance issue?
A. Add counters to the builder calls that are suspect.
B. Consult the performance log, which is created by default with each model run.
C. Enable system tracing in the run configuration tab to log the execution time for each action (page or
method).
D. Dedicate a larger Java HEAP_SIZE to the main method associated with the model that is suspect.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Tim has a web application that accesses a database through a provider model containing SQL Call
builders. He thinks there might be a performance problem with one or more of the database calls. How
can he get WebSphere Portlet Factory to log detailed performance information about all aspects of the
database access.?
A. He needs to use a SQL Override builder; this builder provides several fields that enable
detailed logging of performance information for database access.
B. He must enable DEBUG-level database performance tracing in the Log4J properties file and redeploy
the WAR file.
C. He must enable the Log Server Stats field in each SQL Call builder.
D. No changes are required; WebSphere Portlet Factory automatically logs performance statistics for all
executed actions, such as database access calls.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Jeffrey is reviewing the following section of a debugTracing.txt log.
What can he infer from this part of the log?
A. The main method took no time to execute.
B. The appMainPage took 46 seconds to load.
C. The varSampleApp variable changed during or after the appMainPage loaded.
D. The varSampleApp variable was set to Chicago prior to the loading of the appMainPage.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Pat wants to know how many web service calls are being made in a given time frame, how long on
average each web service call is taking, and how many web service calls are failing. How can Pat obtain
such performance information?
A. That information is not yet available from the WebSphere Portlet Factory web service support, but the
application can be built to log this information itself, if desired.
B. WebSphere Portlet Factory logs all requests, average latency and faults, in the deployed applications
WEB-INF/logs/event.log file.
C. WebSphere Portlet Factory logs web service requests, average latency and faults, in the deployed
applications WEB-INF/logs/serverStats.txt log file.
D. Enable this logging using the Performance field in the Web Service Call builder, and the
information comes back with the web service call results to the consumer model.
Answer: C

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NO.5 The primary use for the WebSphere Portlet Factory server configuration is?
A. To deliver your application to a production server.
B. To deploy, run, and test your application on a development server.
C. To create a WAR file for manual deployment to a production or development server.
D. To give your application access to APIs that are specific to the target server.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-280
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cloud Computing Infrastructure Architect V1)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 102 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which IBM product implements metering capabilities?
A. IBM Tivoli Monitoring
B. IBM Tivoli Common Reporting
C. IBM Tivoli System Automation
D. IBM Tivoli Usage and Accounting Manager
Answer: D

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NO.2 An enterprise wants to take advantage of cloud computing but retain control over the construction and
delivery of all cloud-based services. Which cloud deployment model will meet their needs?
A. hybrid cloud
B. private cloud
C. community cloud
D. public shared cloud
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which storage infrastructure function provides benefit for public cloud computing?
A. metadata
B. multipath I/O
C. clustered trivial database
D. real time storage management
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is a critical and unique component during the design and planning process for a cloud service?
A. IT Service availability
B. Business Service availability
C. IT Infrastructure/Component availability
D. IT Service and Infrastructure/Component availability
Answer: B

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NO.5 A company is setting up a cloud environment to host several of their applications. These applications
vary in importance and the company wants to ensure that the most business critical applications get the
most resource. Which solution will help achieve this goal?
A. WebSphere eXtreme Scale
B. WebSphere Business Events
C. WebSphere Virtual Enterprise
D. WebSphere Business Monitor
Answer: C

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NO.6 A company hosts office applications on a stand alone server in their data center. A recent spike in
demand for one of their applications resulted in the denial of access to some potential users. Which
characteristic of the cloud service delivery model would meet the fluctuating demands of the company's
users?
A. service ubiquity
B. service elasticity
C. self-service access
D. usage-based billing
Answer: B

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NO.7 What are two methods that address both network infrastructure security and performance for a cloud
computing environment? (Choose two.)
A. encryption (SSL)
B. limiting network hops
C. network load balancing
D. denial of service prevention
E. intrusion detection and prevention
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 A customer wants to implement a private cloud solution and they are anticipating changes in their
current virtualization operational model. Which virtualization configuration characteristic is affected by the
implementation of cloud infrastructure?
A. higher latency
B. lower server utilization
C. higher demand/transient use
D. easier dependency/user management
Answer: C

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NO.9 What are two optimized workload characteristics supported by the IBM cloud portfolio? (Choose two.)
A. analytics
B. tightly-coupled
C. centralized message bus
D. high-performance computing
E. structured related data model
Answer: A,D

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NO.10 A cloud service vendor provides business services such as human resources and payroll processing.
They use Web interfaces on a shared infrastructure providing multi-tenant services without the need to
manage or control the underlying resources. What type of cloud service is this company providing?
A. Platform as a Service
B. Software as a Service
C. Infrastructure as a Service
D. Business Process as a Service
Answer: D

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NO.11 What are two key infrastructure components for data migration when planning a move to cloud?
(Choose two.)
A. storage
B. network
C. monitoring
D. data mining
E. high availability
Answer: A,B

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NO.12 What are two considerations before moving data to a public cloud? (Choose two.)
A. A company must restructure all data to accommodate a public cloud data model.
B. A company should analyze all legal and regulatory issues that pertain to the data.
C. A company can safely assume that cloud services will replicate and backup all of their data.
D. A company should encrypt all data so that they do not have to analyze legal and regulatory issues.
E. A company should analyze data structure to see if they can take advantage of public cloud data
models.
Answer: B,E

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NO.13 Which technology is used in certain IBM WebSphere DataPower appliances to provide identity
verification of public cloud endpoints and to securely transmit encrypted data between enterprise
endpoints and public cloud endpoints in an integrated cloud environment?
A. IBM Tivoli CloudBurst Appliance
B. WebSphere CloudBurst Appliance
C. WebSphere DataPower Secure Communicator
D. WebSphere DataPower Secure Cloud Connector
Answer: D

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NO.14 A cloud infrastructure should be architected to accommodate which technical risks?
A. overflowing network buffers resulting in loss of data
B. termination of service by an internet service provider
C. fiber cable damage causing a failover to copper channels
D. unauthorized configuration changes to storage network devices
Answer: D

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NO.15 Cloud architectures designed for service delivery and availability of services are extremely important.
How is software failure within a cloud infrastructure environment handled? (Choose two.)
A. replace the failed node
B. restart the software image
C. use elastic IP addresses for consistent and re-mappable routes
D. allow the state of the system to re-sync by reloading messages from queues
E. design services with proper real time disaster recovery and stateful user context
Answer: D,E

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NO.16 Which term is used to describe a hypervisor running multiple operating systems simultaneously.?
A. full virtualization
B. paravirtualization
C. partial virtualization
D. nested virtualization
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which component is necessary to view monitoring reports for IBM Service Delivery Manager?
A. Tivoli Enterprise Portal
B. Tivoli Service Request Manager
C. Tivoli Service Automation Manager
D. WebSphere Administrative Console
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which characteristic best describe the difference between Service Oriented Architecture (SOA) and
cloud computing?
A. pay per use model
B. shared computing resources
C. SOA exists within the firewall
D. leverage IT resources on demand
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which area of the current IT enterprise availability and redundancy components must be addressed in
order to move to a cloud operational model?
A. server capacity to service capacity
B. workload availability to service availability
C. application availability to workload availability
D. server mean time between failures (MTBF) to service MTBF
Answer: C

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NO.20 What is the collection and control point for alerts?
A. Tivoli Enterprise Console
B. Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server
C. Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Agent
D. Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-M86
Exam Name: IBM (IBM MDM PIM Technical Sales Mastery Test v1)
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Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Where is the exported file stored?
A. External to PIM
B. Message topic
C. Document store
D. None of the above.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following is NOT a supported destination for export?
A. FTP server
B. HTTP post
C. Messaging topic
D. Email attachment
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following is not a supported Import semantics?
A. Update
B. Replace
C. Delete
D. Insert
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following parameters cannot be assigned to a step?
A. Script
B. Timeout values
C. Notification
D. Catalog
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which statement(s) about Lookup Tables is/are TRUE? i)Uses a special type of spec: Lookup Table
Spec, which is related to the Primary Spec. ii)Cannot be versioned manually. iii)Do not have an attached
security access control group (ACG). iv)They use hierarchies.
A. Only i is true
B. Only ii is true
C. i, ii, iii are true
D. i, ii, iii, iv are true
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following does NOT describe Master data?
A. Transactional Data and Application-unique data
B. Key facts describing your core business entities: Employee, Products
C. Key facts describing your core business entities: Customers, Partners
D. None of the above.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following is a technique to simplify integration interfaces in PIM implementation?
A. Leverage ready to use PIM services.
B. Develop web services.
C. Leverage the enterprise integration layer.
D. Use batch loads.
Answer: C

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NO.8 What is the difference between MDM Server and Data Warehouse?
A. MDM Server manages master data only plus, it is operational in nature.
B. MDM Server focuses on transactional data only, it does not manage dimensional data.
C. MDM Sever manages dimensional data.
D. Real-time data warehouse and MDM Sever are exactly same, both provide analytical function.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Primary Spec Attributes are used to describe an entry which _________________.
A. can only be an Item
B. can only be a Category
C. can be an Item or a category
D. None of the Above.
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is the main benefit of phased approach in PIM implementation?
A. Less development time
B. Clear scope
C. Limited risks
D. Small team
Answer: C

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