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Exam Code: HP3-X01
Exam Name: HP Desktops, Workstations and Notebook Tools and Diagnostics HP3-X01
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 How can you run HP Vision Diagnostics? (Select two)
A. from a USB Key
B. from a CD ROM disk
C. as a Web-browser hosted Java application
D. as an installed Windows executable application
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 How do you access HP System Diagnostics (UEFI) on an HP computer'?
A. Press the F2 key at the BIOS system Startup Menu
B. Use a local CD ROM disk that contains the UEFI system files
C. Press the F8 key after the BIOS system Startup Menu displays
D. Navigate to the \HP_TOOLS directory of the boot disk and run SystemDiags.exe.
Answer: A

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NO.3 On which standard 15 Desktop and Mobile Architecture for System Hardware (DASH) based?
A. DMTF
B. IEEE
C. UEFI
D. USB 2.0
Answer: A

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NO.4 You are testing an HP notebook computer that displays the Windows error "Bug Check Qx7F: :
UNEXPECTED_KERNEL_MODE_TRAPT*.
What should you do?
A. Run a memory diagnostic test
B. Run a hard drive diagnostic test
C. Reset the BIOS settings to factory defaults
D. Check the system BIOS for a version update
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is required to use Desktop and Mobile Architecture for System Hardware (DASH) or HP computer
systems?
A. The system must be bootable to Windows
B. The system must have an HP_T0OLS utility partition
C. A specialized USB key must be connected
D. Special DASH hardware must be built in to computer
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP2-Z19
Exam Name: HP Implementing HP Network Security Solutions HP2-Z19
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Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 You must update the software on an HP E3500 yl switch. Which devices can be sources for the copy
command? (Select two.)
A. USB flash drive
B. management workstation hard drive
C. TFTP server
D. FTP server
E. Compact Flash card
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 Refer to the exhibit below.
You enter the following command at the switch ¯ s C L I: E5406 ( v l a-100)# no untag a24
Why does this command fail?
A. Port A24 is not a member of VLAN 100.
B. Port A24 must be a member of at least one VLAN.
C. VLAN 100 must have at least one port member.
D. no untag a24 is an invalid CLI command.
Answer: B

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NO.3 How can the TippingPoint Threat Management Center (TMC) be accessed? (Select three.)
A. directly by your SMS, if your SMS has a valid TMC username/password
B. by anyone with a browser and valid TMC username/password
C. using an FTP client
D. directly by your IPS
E. directly by your SMS, as your SMS does not need a TMC username/password
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.4 Which security technology requires that you set read/write community names?
A. SFTP
B. SSH
C. SNMP
D. HTTPS
E. SMTP
Answer: C

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NO.5 A security administrator for a TippingPoint IPS suspects that an employee has logged into the IPS and
altered its configuration. How can the security administrator analyze and undo all of the unauthorized
changes?
A. by reviewing the IPS system log, searching for filter hits from the employee
B. by reviewing the IPS audit log, filtering by the employee ¯ s use r na m e and / o r I P adress
C. by reviewing the configuration changes listed in the IPS alert log
D. by reviewing the IPS block log (the employee would have been blocked)
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which remote management interface on an E-Series switch can be secured by enabling Secure
Sockets Layer (SSL)?
A. console
B. menu
C. web management
D. Telnet
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which E-Series CLI commands enable you to view all show commands available in the current context?
(Select two.)
A. Switch# show /?
B. Switch# show all
C. Switch# show help
D. Switch# show ?
E. Switch# show <tab>
F. Switch# help show
Answer: D,E

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NO.8 What is the serial console speed of an IPS?
A. 9600
B. 19200
C. 115,200
D. user configurable
Answer: C

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NO.9 A security administrator at a university has been tasked with identifying the TippingPoint IPS that
would best meet the university's needs. The university has a complex network, with a mixture of both fiber
and copper wiring. IPS protection must be provided for three copper segments and two fiber segments.
The aggregate bandwidth (with expansion capacity) is not expected to exceed 3Gbps over the next four
years.
Which TippingPoint IPS solution should the security administrator recommend?
A. 2 TippingPoint 330s and 1 TippingPoint 600E
B. TippingPoint 5000E or TippingPoint 5100N
C. TippingPoint SMS
D. TippingPoint 5100N only
Answer: D

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NO.10 By default, what is an IPS single super-user called?
A. By default, the single super-user is called root.
B. By default, the single super-user is called SuperUser.
C. By default, the single super-user is called admin.
D. There is no default user.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Refer to the exhibit below.
You have configured IP helper addresses for VLAN 5 and VLAN 6 on this HP E5406 zl switch. However,
users in these VLANs report that their computers are not receiving DHCP addresses. Which feature must
be enabled to address this problem?
A. DNS
B. DHCP relay
C. IP routing
D. DHCP snooping
Answer: B

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6.Port B1 on an HP ProCurve 5406zl switch is an untagged member of VLAN 155 and not a tagged
member of any VLAN. Port C1 is a tagged member of VLAN 155 and an untagged member of VLAN 100.
You issue the following command:
5406.l(config)# no vlan 155
Why do you receive the following prompt?
The following ports will be moved to the default VLAN:
B1Do you want to continue? [y/n]:
A. The CLI always issues this prompt when deleting a VLAN.
B. The CLI will not allow you to orphan a port.
C. The CLI will not delete a VLAN with any port membership.
D. All ports must be moved to the default VLAN before you can delete the VLAN.
Answer: A

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NO.12 What are benefits of implementing Secure Socket Shell (SSH) for remote management of HP switches?
(Select two.)
A. user accounting
B. encryption of management traffic
C. stronger passwords
D. enforcement of management VLAN
E. secure authentication
F. encryption of all traffic
Answer: B,E

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NO.13 You make configuration changes to the running configuration of your HP E3500 yl switch. Which
command saves these changes to your startup configuration?
A. save running-config
B. copy running-config startup-config
C. write memory
D. write config
Answer: C

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NO.14 What is the effect of the following commands entered at the CLI of an HP E8212 zl switch with routing
and RIP enabled?E8212(rip)# redistribute ospf
A. The switch will filter OSPF routes from RIP updates received from peers.
B. The switch will include routes learned through OSPF in all RIP updates.
C. The switch will include routes learned through RIP in all OSPF link-state messages.
D. The switch will give preference to OSPF routes over RIP routes in its route table.
Answer: B

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NO.15 Multiple user accounts can be created on an IPS device. Each can be assigned to one of three roles:
super-user, administrator, or operator. Which statements are true about these roles? (Select two.)
A. An administrator can reset the audit log.
B. A super-user can create new accounts and edit existing account passwords.
C. An operator is a view-only role.
D. Only the super-user can reboot an IPS.
Answer: B,C

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NO.16 Which categories of routing protocols include RIP and OSPF? (Select two.)
A. exterior gateway
B. link state
C. label switching
D. distance vector
E. interior gateway
Answer: A,E

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NO.17 Refer to the exhibit below.
What is indicated by this entry in the IP route table of an HP E8212 zl switch?
A. The switch has been configured with an ACL that blocks communications with the loopback interfaces.
B. The switch does not permit communications with any loopback interface.
C. Traffic to this interface is rejected with the single exception of traffic to the host address of the switch ¯ s
loopback interface (127.0.0.1/ 32).
D. A loopback interface is configured with 127.0.0.0.
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which HP E-Series switch models display the following prompt in the interface configuration context?
(Select two.)HP Switch(eth-A24)#
A. E8212 zl
B. E6600-24G
C. E5412-96G zl
D. E2910-24G al
E. E3500-48G-POE yl
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.19 You are at the manager level prompt in the CLI of an HP E3500 yl switch. Which options are available at
this prompt? (Select two.)
A. assign IP address to VLAN interface
B. enable IP routing
C. restart the switch
D. disable ports
E. update software
Answer: C,E

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NO.20 What does the Threat Management Center (TMC) allow you to do? (Select three.)
A. Download TOS images.
B. Access knowledgebase articles.
C. Remotely log in to your IPS.
D. Download Digital Vaccines.
E. Download custom Digital Vaccines.
Answer: A,B,D

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Exam Code: HP0-Y31
Exam Name: HP Implementing HP Network Infrastructure Solutions HP0-Y31
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 You have an HP Networking Switch E5400 zl that has two configured VLANs. VLAN 100 has an IP
address range of 10.1.100.0/24 and is where the servers reside. VLAN 36 has an IP address range of
10.1.36.0/24 and is where the network clients reside. You configure an ACL with the following entries:
permit tcp 10.1.36.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.100.10 255.255.255.255 eq ftp
permit tcp 10.1.36.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.100.10 255.255.255.255 eq https
permit tcp 10.1.36.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.100.10 255.255.255.255 eq ssh
When you apply this ACL statically to ports in VLAN 36, what is the effect on the clients located in VLAN
36?
A. They have no access because the ACL is misconfigured.
B. They cannot access anything in the 10.1.100.0 subnet because IP has not been specified in the ACL.
C. They are allowed only FTP, HTTPS, and SSH access to 10.1.100.10, but no access elsewhere.
D. They are allowed only FTP, HTTPS, and SSH access to 10.1.100.10, but full access to everything else
in the 10.1.100.0 subnet.
Answer: C

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NO.2 A company ¯ s he l p desk r eques t s access t o t he w eb i n t e rf ace o f va ri ous ne t w o r k i ng dev i ces . The
network administrator decides to implement a secure web interface using SSL. Which step is necessary
to complete this task on an HP E5400 zl switch?
A. import the certificate authority certificate
B. configure RADIUS for user login
C. generate a self-signed certificate
D. enable SSH
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is an advantage of locating intelligent routing at the edge of an enterprise network instead of only
in the core?
A. The edge-oriented strategy supports VRRP and MSTP for default gateway redundancy.
B. The edge-oriented strategy requires fewer VLANs and networks.
C. The edge-oriented strategy simplifies route summarization because only routers must support VLANs
only for directly connected users.
D. The edge-oriented strategy allows traffic to traverse the network after the routing decisions have been
made.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which mechanism enables two parties to agree on a symmetric key on their own without transmitting it
over the network?
A. Kerberos
B. Key Distribution Center (KDC)
C. Diffie-Hellman exchange
D. Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)
Answer: C

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NO.5 HP E5400 zl switches have the ability to mirror traffic from one switch to another. Which action should
you take when implementing remote mirroring?
A. Configure a connection-rate filter.
B. Enable the instrumentation monitor.
C. Enable jumbo frames.
D. Enable a bandwidth limit.
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is one security challenge that is specifically addressed by dynamically refreshing encryption keys?
A. Users forget their passwords and forget how to connect.
B. Hackers are more likely to crack a key when they have many frames encrypted with that key.
C. Asymmetric keys, which are more secure than symmetric keys, must be distributed dynamically.
D. Static encryptions keys can protect data's privacy, but not its integrity.
Answer: B

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NO.7 An administrator has been tasked with implementing a dynamic port ACL on an HP E5400 zl Series
switch. Which statements are true? (Select two.)
A. It can be implemented as either a standard or extended ACL.
B. It filters switched IP traffic either inbound or outbound on a designated port.
C. It requires the use of 802.1X, Web, or MAC authentication services on the switch.
D. It is used where clients with differing access needs are likely to use the same port.
E. Configuration of the ACL is done on the switch and then read dynamically by a RADIUS server when a
user connects.
F. It can be applied to either a single physical port or to a link aggregation group.
Answer: C,D

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NO.8 You must configure four HP E8212 zl switches and six HP E5406 zl switches to support Multiple
Instance Spanning Tree (MSTP) on a network. What must you do to ensure that all the switches join the
same MST region?
A. Configure the switches with identical Uplink Priorities for common switch-to-switch links.
B. Configure Bridge Priorities on each switch so that all MST instances have a different Root Bridge.
C. Configure the switches with identical config-names, config-revisions, and VLAN-to-instance mappings.
D. Configure all switch-to-switch links in each MST instance as tagged members of all VLANs.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which authentication protocol provides mutual authentication for both the supplicant and the
authentication server?
A. Password Authentication Protocol (PAP)
B. Challenge-Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)
C. Microsoft CHAP version 2 (MS-CHAPv2)
D. Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)-Message Digest 5 (MD5)
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which default gateway redundancy protocol is supported on HP E5400 zl switches?
A. XRRP
B. HSRP
C. VRRP
D. FSRP
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which RADIUS packet includes the Attribute Value Pairs (AVPs) that are applied to customize a user
connection?
A. Access-Update
B. Access-Request
C. Accounting-Request
D. Access-Accept
Answer: D

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NO.12 Your CIO wants you to investigate IT defense in depth. What does this mean?
A. You need to purchase a deep-packet inspection Intrusion Prevention System (IPS).
B. You need to upgrade your firewalls to next-generation firewalls.
C. You need to plan a comprehensive strategy that addresses security at many layers.
D. You need to leverage the network infrastructure built-in security features rather than look for
appliance-based solutions.
Answer: C

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NO.13 How does the Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) improve network availability?
A. by providing redundant links between edge and core layers
B. by providing redundant connections to the Internet
C. by providing backup default gateways for client devices
D. by supporting the configuration of redundant gateways on VRRP-enabled clients
Answer: C

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NO.14 Routed ACLs (RACLs) can be used to filter traffic on an HP E5400 zl switch. Which traffic is
inspected?
A. routed IP traffic arriving on one VLAN and leaving through another VLAN
B. switched IP traffic moving between ports belonging to the same VLAN
C. IP traffic entering a physical port, port list, or static trunk
D. switched IP traffic moving between ports belonging to the same subnet of a multinetted VLAN
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which statement is true about the HP E5400 zl switch Connection-rate Filtering feature?
A. It detects threats with both a signature-based engine and an anomaly-based engine that can detect
zero day attacks.
B. A connection-rate ACL can be used to allow some or all inbound traffic through a port that has been
throttled or blocked.
C. It uses sFlow traffic sampling to determine whether traffic activity represents an intrusion.
D. The connection-rate filter sensitivity is configurable per port, VLAN, or link aggregation group.
Answer: B

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NO.16 When the following command is issued at the CLI of an HP E5400 zl switch at factory default settings,
which Spanning Tree version is enabled?
E5406(config)# spanning-tree
A. STP+
B. PVST+
C. MSTP
D. RSTP
Answer: C

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NO.17 When a router must determine which route to include in its route table, when does the router use
administrative distance in the decision.?
A. when the router has learned about multiple routes to the same destination from static configurations or
different routing protocols
B. when the router has learned about multiple routes from equal-cost paths to the same destination
C. when the router is configured with static routes to the same destination that specify the same cost but
different next hop router interfaces
D. when the router has learned about multiple routes to the same destination from different sources using
the same routing protocol
Answer: A

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NO.18 An administrator needs to create an ACL to block traffic from 192.168.10.23 to 192.168.10.100, which
are on the same subnet. Which type of ACL can be used to meet this need?
A. a standard ACL applied as Routed ACL (RACL)
B. an extended ACL applied as a Routed ACL (RACL)
C. a standard ACL applied as a VLAN ACL (VACL)
D. an extended ACL applied as a VLAN ACL (VACL)
Answer: D

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NO.19 You must configure an HP E5406 zl switch to be the Owner of a VRID associated with VLAN 20. What
must be true of the virtual IP address for the VRID?
A. It must use an address on a multi-netted VLAN interface.
B. It must match the router's address on the VLAN 20 interface.
C. It must use a classless address.
D. It must match the address assigned to VLAN 20 on the Backup router.
Answer: B

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NO.20 You must provide the capability for the Virtual IP address to be pinged if the Backup router assumes
the Master role when the Owner router fails. What is necessary to ensure this operation?
A. E8206(config)# router vrrp virtual-ip-ping
B. E8206(config)# vrrp 10 virtual-ip-ping
C. E8206(config)# router virtual-ip
D. E8206(config)# router ospf ip-ping
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP2-Z15
Exam Name: HP Selling HP E-Series Networking Products HP2-Z15
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 What is the fastest Gigabit Ethernet available?
A. 1 Gb
B. 5 Gb
C. 10 Gb
D. 20 Gb
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which information does a Layer 2 switch use to determine the correct port on which to forward traffic?
A. destination IP address
B. source IP address
C. destination MAC address
D. source MAC address
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which type of network architecture conforms to user, application, and organizational needs, allowing
customers to maximize network productivity and reduce complexity?
A. unified network
B. secure mobility network
C. open network
D. adaptive network
Answer: D

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NO.4 What are some of the benefits that a customer gains from a network that is unified from the core to
the access layer with the ProVision ASIC family?
A. managed infrastructure, unified management, and unified support
B. unified infrastructure, unified management, and enterprise support
C. unified infrastructure, unified routing, and unified support
D. unified infrastructure, unified management, and unified support
Answer: D

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NO.5 HP offers two form factors for its switches. What are they?
A. fixed hub and modular
B. fixed port and modular
C. fixed port and modem
D. free port and modular
Answer: B

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NO.6 You must approach an enterprise customer with a history of deploying single-vendor solutions and a
preference for a unified approach with a single operating system. Which product line should you use as
your lead?
A. V series
B. S series
C. E series
D. A series
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which two elements of the HP Networking strategy help to lower customer TCO? (Select two.)
A. converged functionality
B. robust security solutions
C. advanced technology development
D. unified wired/wireless access
E. layer 3 switch support
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 A company ¯ s p ri va t e ne t w o r k i s d i v i ded i n t o seve r a l subne t s . W h i ch dev i ces can a ll o w tr a ffi c t o fl o w
between the subnets? (Select two.)
A. router
B. hub
C. standalone access point
D. Layer 2 switch
E. Layer 3 switch
Answer: A,E

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NO.9 Which HP E-Series switches require the customer to purchase a separate power supply?
A. all modular switches
B. all E8200 zl or E5400 zl switches
C. all E8200 zl or E5400 zl switches sold without bundled modules
D. all switches that support PoE
Answer: C

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NO.10 What is the definition of a network?
A. a group of two or more computer systems linked together
B. a group of three or more computer systems linked together
C. a group of four or more computer systems linked together
D. a group of five or more computer systems linked together
Answer: A

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NO.11 If you select a fiber optic cable for the transmission medium, you must consider the mode for the
fiber cable. Fiber optic cables can be divided into two broad categories. What are they?
A. trimode and singlemode
B. quadmode and singlemode
C. automode and singlemode
D. multimode and singlemode
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which product line should you use for your lead when engaging a customer who likes the appeal of a
lifetime warranty?
A. S series
B. V series
C. A series
D. E series
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which HP Networking product line features smart-managed switches?
A. A series
B. E series
C. V series
D. S series Answer: C

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NO.14 Which device provides dedicated bandwidth to every connected workstation but is only capable of
forwarding data within the VLAN in which the traffic originates?
A. router
B. Layer 2 switch
C. Layer 3 switch
D. hub
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which type of HP E-Series switches includes all of the features necessary for an access-layer switch
in an Adaptive Network, including Layer 2 switch, dynamic routing, convergence, management, and
security?
A. Layer 2 managed switches
B. ProVision ASIC switches
C. Lite Layer 3 switches
D. web-managed switches
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-J42
Exam Name: HP Introduction to HP SANs HP0-J42
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 How can you increase customer trust in storage automation systems?
A. Reduce system error messages.
B. Restrict the design to well accepted virtualization techniques.
C. Involve the customer in the workflow.
D. Integrate the software in existing products.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which commands can you use to review log files and traces on B-Series switches? (Select two.)
A. portlogshow
B. supportshow
C. portstatshow
D. logdownload
E. logsave
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 Which product enables you to verify the interoperation of switches and connected devices, such as
storage arrays, at protocol level?
A. Fabric Manager Server
B. Finisar Fibre Channel (FC) Analyzer
C. SAN Designer
D. Data Center Fabric Manager
Answer: B

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NO.4 During the verification of logs you observe an attenuation of 10 dB on a trunk port of a B-series 4/64
switch. What is the most probable reason?
A. chromatic dispersion
B. improperly seated cable
C. congested optical fiber
D. modal dispersion
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which single command is used for comprehensive data collection needed for next-level
troubleshooting of B-Series switches?
A. switchshow
B. errshow
C. portstatshow
D. supportsave
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP2-E23
Exam Name: HP Technical Essentials of HP Enterprise Products HP2-E23
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 Which product is required to manage an HP Storage works Enterprise Virtual Array solution?
A. HP Storage works Secure Manager
B. HP Storage works Command View
C. HP Storage Essentials SRM Software Suite
D. HP High Availability Fabric Manger
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which feature is common to all HP Blade System c-Class servers?
A. Inter Xeon processors
B. SAS hard drives
C. iLO 2 Standard Blade Edition
D. internal USB connectors
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which integrated Lights-Out (iLO) 2 features are enabled by an Advanced Pack license on a ProLiantDL
series sever? (Select two.)
A. Virtual Power Button
B. Virtual KVM Graphic Console
C. Virtual Media
D. Power Regulator forProLiant
E. Remote Serial Console
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 A customer is interested in purchasing a new HP ProLiant DL580 G5 server. How many processor
modules can this server scale to?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which fabric topology is the most fault-resilient?
A. Ring Fabric
B. Fully Meshed Fabric
C. Cascaded Fabric
D. Core-edge Fabric
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-M35
Exam Name: HP Implementing HP TRIM 7.x Software HP0-M35
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 How do you add activities to the Workflow template?
A. Select Tools > Add Activity.
B. Right-click, then select Add Activity.
C. Select Edit > New Activity.
D. Select File > New > Activity.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Once a record is authorized for destruction, how should you change the status from Active to Destroyed
in HP TRIM?
A. Locate the record, right-click and select Properties. In the Title field, add the word Destroyed before the
title.
B. Locate the record, right-click and select Administrative Tools > Retention. Click the Disposition tab and
select the options to change disposition to Destroyed.
C. Locate the record and change the Home Assignee Locations to Destroyed for the record container.
D. Locate the record, right-click and select Record Type. Click on the record type that holds Destroyed
records, and then click OK.
Answer: B

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NO.3 HOTSPOT
Click the Task button. Click on the menu option you should select to administer a SharePoint document in
HP TRIM, while allowing users to edit and use this document within SharePoint.
Answer:

NO.4 What is the difference between the Check Out and Edit functions in HP TRIM?
A. Check Out shows that a document is checked out to a user and shows the check out in the Assignee
field; Edit allows you to edit an electronic document.
B. Check Out provides document revision/replacement option during Check In; Edit automatically creates
a revision with no user interaction.
C. Check Out acts as a placeholder for a document and prevents other users from viewing it if it is
checked out; Edit allows you to select the application that will be used to make changes in the document.
D. Check Out cannot be used on a document; Edit allows you to change the metadata properties of a HP
TRIM record.
Answer: B

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NO.5 The Export function supports many different elements of information. Which objects can be exported.?
(Select three.)
A. locations
B. record types
C. electronic documents
D. shortcut keys
E. metadata
F. document queues
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.6 Which action should you perform before importing data?
A. update locations
B. validate index
C. back up datasets and document stores
D. take dataset offline
Answer: C

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NO.7 For what purpose would you use the Print Report function?
A. to produce electronic documents
B. to generate barcode labels
C. to print workflows
D. to create HTML documents
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which HP TRIM function allows you to select the fields to "export" record metadata to a Word, Word
Perfect, or tab-delimited file?
A. TRIMPort
B. Print Merge
C. SuperCopy
D. Copy
Answer: B

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NO.9 When creating a new document record for HP TRIM via Windows Explorer, the user should highlight the
document, right-click and select what?
A. Send to HP TRIM
B. New to HP TRIM
C. Open with HP TRIM
D. Properties for HP TRIM
Answer: A

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NO.10 Users have the ability to perform a Record Request in HP TRIM, which places an electronic request in
the Record Request screen, accessed by Tools > Record > Record Request. Other than manually
deleting the Record Request, how is the Record Request removed from the Record Request screen?
A. by double clicking on the Record Request to fulfill the Request
B. by changing the record's assignee to the requestor's name
C. by right-clicking on the record and selecting Locations > Request
D. by changing the record's home location to the requestor's name
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-B61
Exam Name: HP HP Imaging and Printing Management and Security Solutions-Technical HP2-B61
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 Why are job accounting audit trails useful for imaging and printing devices?
A. They restrict the use of color printing as needed.
B. They demonstrate that printers are being used.
C. They demonstrate that regulatory compliance is taking place.
D. They are used in accountant offices during tax season.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Why must the imaging and printing environment be secure.?
A. Most imaging and printing devices are no longer simple network appliances.
B. Most imaging and printing devices are network appliances and need protection from physical theft.
C. NIST (National Institute of Standards and Technologies) requires it.
D. IEEp2600 standards require it.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which competitive advantages does HP offer for security when combined with printing and imaging
devices? (Select three.)
A. HP approaches security holistically.
B. HP partners with hacker organizations.
C. HP is the undeniable expert in securing and backing up networked data.
D. HP Web Jetadmin is the industry leading utility for managing imaging and printing devices.
E. HP is the undisputed leader in imaging and printing.
F. HP encrypts all printer data before sending it across a network.
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.4 Why is job accounting information gathered and utilized for billing and pay-for-use?
(Select three.)
A. to aid in installing, configuring and managing printer fleets remotely
B. to demonstrate that a company is making efforts to protect information
C. to gather data so it can be encrypted for security reasons
D. to track network usage and make network telephony changes
E. to show proof of compliance to regulators
F. to detect abuse of information sharing and digital communication outside the company
G. to create an electronic workflow for archiving hard copies
Answer: C,D,F

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NO.5 What are components in the HP Imaging and Printing Security framework? (Select four.)
A. Secure your data.
B. Secure your printing devices.
C. Protect your printed documents.
D. Improve workflow through authenticating network devices.
E. Reduce network traffic.
F. Monitor and manage your printing fleet.
G. Enable print job tracking and accounting.
Answer: A,B,C,D

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Exam Code: HP2-B76
Exam Name: HP HP Imaging and Printing Technical Fundamentals HP2-B76
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 What is the purpose of the Quick Copy feature?
A. to allow the image to be viewed on the PC prior to printing
B. to allow the job to be printed on multiple printers simultaneously
C. to allow the user to verify output prior to printing all copies
D. to allow additional copies to be made at the printer without resending the printing job
Answer: D

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NO.2 What happens after a Proof and Hold job is sent to an HP Color LaserJet.?
A. It remains on the hard disk until the printer is switched off.
B. It remains on the hard disk, even when the printer is switched off.
C. It remains in the memory of the printer.
D. it is deleted from the printer.
Answer: C

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NO.3 How do you print a job using the Stored Job option?
A. use the driver selection for printing stored jobs
B. use HP Web Jetadmin
C. use the user name you selected on the control panel to view the Stored Job option
D. use the control panel to select the stored job for printing
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which HP technology enhances printer performance and minimizes network traffic?
A. RIP first/transmit later
B. sends once / RIP once
C. transmits once / RIP once
D. transmit once/RIP triple
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is an advantage of PCL 6 over PCL 5c?
A. PCL 6 supports color printing and PCL 5c does not.
B. PCL 6 is compatible with all PCL printers and PCL 5c is not
C. PCL 6 can use object-based commands instead of only HPGL commands.
D. PCL 6 has improved paper handling functions
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which feature from Job Retention do you use to make prints, without wasting paper through document
errors'?
A. Quick Copy
B. Stored Job
C. Secure Printing
D. Proof and Hold
Answer: D

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NO.7 A graphic arts business is creating images for printing on an offset press. The business is using an HP
Pinter for printing the final proofs. EPS files are often sent to the business to be included in the images
Printed.
Which driver should be used?
A. PCL6
B. PCL5
C. PCL5e
D. PostScript
Answer: D

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NO.8 Prescribe is a common language of which vendor?
A. IBM
B. HP
C. Adobe
D. Kyocera
Answer: D

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NO.9 What is the most time consuming part of the laser printing electronic process?
A. I/O process
B. PS process
C. PCL process
D. page rendering
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which printer driver language uses HPGL commands while printing a bounding box?
A. PCL5
B. PostScript
C. PCL3
D. PCL6
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-H12
Exam Name: HP Designing and Implementing HP Thin Client Solutions HP2-H12
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 What is the mail-in warranty turnaround time for HP thin clients sent to HP for repair?
A. 8 hours
B. 16 hours
C. 24 hours
D. 48 hours
Answer: D

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NO.2 Your customer requires the lowest-cost thin client solution with only basic connectivity, integrated
connection brokers, no browser or terminal emulation support, and the most essential peripheral support.
Which thin client operating system should you recommend?
A. HP ThinPro
B. HP ThinConnect
C. MS Windows XPe
D. MS Windows CE
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) solutions are recognized by HP (Select two)
A. HP Blade PC
B. VmWare View
C. Citrix XenApp
D. HP Image Manager
E. Citrix XenDesktop
Answer: B,E

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NO.4 Which HP thin client operating system includes the features listed in the exhibit?
Case Study Title (Case Study):
Basic connectivity: ICA/RDP/X-term
Software extensibility: Modest
some modules can be download from HP
Peripheral support: Wide
Local browser: Firefox
Terminal emulation: TeemTalk
A. HP ThinPro
B. HP ThinConnect
C. MS Windows XPe
D. MX Windows CE
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which protocols does HP support to access HP blade workstations remotely (Select two).?
A. ICA
B. VNC
C. RDC
D. RGS
E. RDP
Answer: D,E

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NO.6 Which operation system of HP thin clients fully implements the features of the HP Session Allocation
Manager (SAM) broker?
A. HP ThinConnect
B. MS Windows CE
C. MS Windows XPe
D. MS Windows Vista
Answer: C

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NO.7 What are the characteristics of a Knowledge Worker user group (Select two)
A. richer graphical applications
B. many simultaneous user logins
C. multiple display support requirements
D. multiple business or productivity applications open simultaneously
E. fewer application types
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 Which HP Remote Client Solution is best for a task-oriented user?
A. HP Blade Workstation
B. Server Based Computing
C. HP Virtual Desktop Infrastructure
D. Hp Blade PC
Answer: B

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NO.9 What is the role of a connection broker?
A. provides encryption between client and resources
B. determines resource type allocation based on user identity
C. manages golden images and their distribution to compute resources
D. provides a connection between the server and the computer resources
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which remote protocol has a client implementation on all major operating systems?
A. HP RGS
B. Citrix ICA
C. MS RDP
D. X Display Manager Control Protocol
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which thin client operating systems should you recommend to a customer who requires high software
extensibility? (Select two)
A. HP ThinPro
B. MS Windows XPe
C. HP ThinConnect
D. HP ThinPro Plus
E. MS Windows CE
Answer: B,D

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NO.12 To which product line classification in HP thin client portfolio does the HP 2533t model belong?
A. Mobile
B. Flexible
C. Essential
D. Mainstream
Answer: A

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NO.13 A medium-sized bank has upgraded to the most recent Citrix XenApp environment. The have asked
you to provide thin client access devices. In addition to standard ICA access, they need support for their
local printers and would like to use XenApp's Web Interface 5.0 feature.
Which HP thin client models should you suggest as the best cost-effective option for them? (Select two)
A. 2533t
B. 6720t
C. t5145
D. t5540
E. t5630
Answer: D,E

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NO.14 Which models belong to the Flexible product line in HP thin client portfolio (Select two)
A. 6720t
B. t5730
C. t5145
D. t5630
E. t5540
Answer: B,D

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NO.15 Which features are exclusively available with the Windows Xpe operating system and not with the
other operating systems supported on the HP thin clients? (Select two)
A. media player
B. Smart Card support
C. Enhanced Write Filter (EWF)
D. Symantec Endpoint Protection
E. locked-down configuration and accounts
Answer: C,D

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Exam Code: HP2-Z08
Exam Name: HP Migrating to 3Com/H3C Migrating to 3Com/H3C HP2-Z08
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 Which upgrade method enables an administrator to upload a new application file to an MSRSeries
router located in a remote site?
A. TFTP/FTP
B. USB flash drive
C. Boot Menu
D. XModem
Answer:A

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NO.2 Which MSR Series routers feature two Gigabit Ethernet Combo fixed interfaces? (Select two)
A. MSR 30-40
B. MSR 50-40
C. MSR 30-20
D. MSR 20-40
E. MSR 20-20
Answer:A, B

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NO.3 One Comware V5 products, which plane supports user authentication, connection management,and
VPN?
A. Service Control Plane
B. System Management Plane
C. Data Forwarding Plane
D. General Control Plane
Answer:D

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NO.4 A customer requires IPSec encryption performance of 24 Gbps. Which members?
A. SR6608
B. SR6602
C. SR6604
D. SR6616
Answer:D

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NO.5 Which switch family runs the Comware V3 operating system?
A. S7900E
B. S5820x
C. S5500-EI
D. S3600-EI
Answer:D

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