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Exam Code: C2040-442
Exam Name: IBM Notes and Domino Fundamentals
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Exam Code: M2010-719
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Exam Code: P2080-034
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NO.1 How does an IBM Domino server determine which documents to replicate for an application?
A. Only those documents marked for replication by the user are replicated.
B. The Domino server checks each document for the "$Has_Replicated" field.
C. The Domino server checks replication history and replicates only those documents that have
changed since the last replication.
D. The LastUpdated property of the application is checked. The Domino server replicates only
those documents added since the LastUpdatedtime.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which server feature is responsible for name changes and database ACL updates?
A. Name Change Process
B. Replication
C. Extended ACL
D. Administration Process
Answer: D

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NO.3 Robin is developing an XPage application, but she mistakenly closed the Controls and Data
views
in IBM Domino Designer. How can Robin reopen these views?
A. From the Window menu, select XPages under the 'Open Perspective' submenu.
B. Enable the 'XPages views' option on the XPage tab of the Application Properties.
C. In the Domino Designer Preferences on the XPage section, check the Controls and Data view
options.
D. In the Application Navigator, right-click on the XPage application and enable the Controls and
Data view options.
Answer: A

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NO.4 In order for AdminP to work properly, what must every IBM Domino database have?
A. an AdminP certifier
B. an AdminP xACL entry
C. an AdminP retry interval
D. an Administration server
Answer: D

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NO.5 Mary Beth and Kathleen work in the same department. From time to time, they need to see
what
the other one is doing when they show as 'busy' in their calendar. What minimum level of
delegation would Mary Beth need to give Kathleen so that Kathleen can view calendar entries?
A. Automatic forwarding
B. Read, create, edit and delete for Mail
C. Read access for Calendar, To Do and Contacts
D. Read access to Mail, Calendar, To Do and Contacts
Answer: C

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6. James has enabled the Recipients Icons option and notices that no icon is displayed for a
message. Why would no icon be displayed for a message where he is the recipient?
A. James is in the BCC field. When the recipient is in the BCC field, no icon is displayed.
B. The message was sent using an alias name. Messages using an alias do not reflect an icon.
C. James is in the CC field. Only messages where the user is in the To field will reflect the icon.
D. James is also the sender. Messages where the recipient is also the sender do not reflect an
icon.
Answer: A

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7. Max has an application that her company's Chicago office uses on their Chicago server. She
would like her company's Boston office to access the same application on their Boston server but
needs for changes to each application to be kept in sync. How should Max create the application
on the Boston server?
A. Max should create a new copy of the application on the Boston server.
B. Max should create a new replica of the application on the Boston server.
C. Max should create a new application based off the template on the Boston server.
D. Max should create a new application based off the Single Copy Template on the Boston server.
Answer: B

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8. If a valid mail rule action does not work, which action type may have been disabled by the
system
administrator?
A. send copy to
B. copy to folder
C. delete message
D. change importance to
Answer: A

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9. Which of the following statements describes the IBM Domino Roaming Server?
A. The Domino Roaming Server is always a mail server.
B. The Domino Roaming Server is always an application server.
C. The Domino Roaming Server is always the home mail server.
D. The Domino Roaming Server can be, but is not always, the home or mail server.
Answer: D

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10. If a mobile device is lost or stolen, an administrator can issue a remote wipe command to
remove
all sensitive data from the device. What application would the administrator use to perform the
action?
A. Traveler.nsf
B. TravConf.nsf
C. IBM Notes Traveler Remote Administrator
D. IBM Domino Administrator client
Answer: D

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Exam Code: C2090-552
Exam Name: IBM Optim Implementation for Distributed Systems (2009)
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Exam Code: C2040-413
Exam Name: IBM Sametime 9.0 Administration
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NO.1 When performing an archive process that uses a Storage Profile, which action could be performed as a
result of using the storage profile?
A. Creates a connection to the database for use by the storage management device.
B. Creates a connection to the storage management device and copies an Archive File to a backup
device.
C. Creates a storage allocation parameter for the storage or file management system.
D. Creates a duplicate of the existing information from the Archive Repository on the storage
management device.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the information from the Relationships tab of an Access Definition, and the associated Show Steps
report as shown in the exhibit, what is the reason that the ITEM 552.S table is listed as UNTRAVERSED?
A. Options (2) must be enabled for the relationship between DETAILS and ITEM 552.S.
B. The DETAILS table is designated as a Reference Table so all relationships are ignored for this table.
C. Options (1) must be disabled for the relationship between DETAILS and ITEM 552.S.
D. No relationship exists between ITEM 552.S and any other table.
Answer: B

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NO.3 The Optim Directory is built in an Oracle Database. If the project Database is Unicode enabled, which of
the following is true?
A. The Optim Directory can be enabled as either Unicode or Non-Unicode.
B. The Optim Directory and the DB Alias must both be initialized the same, either both as Unicode or both
as Non-Unicode.
C. The Optim Directory and the DB Alias both must be Unicode enabled.
D. The DB Alias must be enabled as Non-Unicode.
Answer: C

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NO.4 The customer has critical production systems against which Optim archive and delete processes are
run. If Optim archive and delete processes are run at the wrong time, it will impact business. Which of the
following will resolve the issue?
A. Using the Optim Configuration program, initialize Optim Security and assign a Security Administrator.
For each role, grant or deny the appropriate privileges.
B. Configure object security, which will deny access to sensitive production objects.
C. By default, the Access Control Domain allows or denies access to particular Optim functions.
D. Configure program security to restrict access to the Optim executables.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Given the following command-line export command: PR0CMND /EXPORT TYPE=EX NAME=%.%
Which required parameter is missing from this syntax?
A. The name of the export file is missing.
B. The name of the report file is missing.
C. The name of the Optim Directory is missing.
D. The name of the parameter file is missing.
Answer: A

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NO.6 You are installing IBM Optim into an Oracle environment. Which statement is correct about user
permissions?
A. The installation user requires the DBA role.
B. The installation user is the only user that can run Optim.
C. The installation user's permissions must be deleted once the installation is complete and all DB Aliases
are created.
D. The installation user must have the SELECT ANY DICTIONARY role.
Answer: D

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NO.7 When you specify the default minimum retention period for protecting Archive Files on a managed
storage system from deletion, when will the files be deleted?
A. When the expiration date on the Archive File has been reached, Optim issues a request to the
managed storage system to delete the file.
B. After the minimum retention period expires, the file can be deleted from Optim.
C. After the minimum retention period expires, the file can be marked deleted by the managed storage
system.
D. After the retention period is reached, the file will be automatically deleted by Optim.
Answer: C

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NO.8 You can use the silent installer in a UNIX environment to install the Optim Server. The silent installer is
NOT available for which two of the following platforms? (Choose two.)
A. HP-UX 11i v2
B. Red Hat Linux 3
C. IBM AIX 5
D. Solaris 8
E. SUSE 10
Answer: B,D

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Exam Code: C4090-452
Exam Name: IBM Storwize V7000 Technical Solutions V2
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Exam Code: C2010-598
Exam Name: IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3 Administration
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Exam Code: C2140-052
Exam Name: Collaborative Lifecycle Management V4
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NO.1 Storwize V7000 volume mirroring creates more resilience in which of the following methods?
A. Creates two copies of a storage pool
B. Mirror a volume between two separate Storwize V7000 systems
C. Allows both controller nodes to provide simultaneous read access
D. Migrates volumes between storage pools that have different extent sizes
Answer: D

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NO.2 A customer is considering the replication of data between two Storwize V7000 systems using
an
existing, shared inter- site link. The technical specialist has been requested to investigate whether
or not this proposal is viable.
To begin the assessment what information should the specialist request for this opportunity?
A. The Recovery Point Objective and the application(s)
B. The application(s) and the amount of data to be replicated
C. The capacity of the inter-site link and the distance between sites
D. The amount of peak change data to be replicated and the capacity of the inter-site link
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the IBM System Storage Easy Tier mode that is enabled for a storage pool with a single
tier of storage to collect usage statistics only for all the volumes in the pool?
A. Monitor
B. Easy tier
C. Automatic
D. Evaluation
Answer: D

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NO.4 Describe the key competitive advantage of IBM integrated Real-time Compression (RtC) over
EMC and HP compression technology.
A. Operates on active primary data
B. Achieves up to 40% better compression rates
C. Provides up to 200% performance improvement
D. Supports faster and more efficient data copies for online backup
Answer: A

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NO.5 During a demonstration, the technical specialist was asked to configure performance
monitoring
data collection for a Storwize V7000.
How should the technical specialist respond?
A. Basic performance monitoring is automatic, no configuration is necessary
B. Basic performance monitoring is only available through the mobile dashboard
C. Tivoli Storage Productivity Center is required to perform basic performance monitoring
D. Basic performance monitoring is automatic on the Storwize V7000 and detailed performance
monitoring is automatic on the Storwize V7000 Unified
Answer: A

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NO.6 Customer requirements show only iSCSI and CIFS access will be required for a Storwize V7000
Unified solution. How many Fibre Channel ports will be utilized on the control enclosures?
A. 0
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: C

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NO.7 What are two advantages of implementing Tivoli Storage FlashCopy Manager with Storwize
V7000 in a customer’s VMware environment? (Select two)
A. Migrate underutilized virtual machine images to lower tier storage
B. Software snapshots are deleted from primary datastore to help preserve space
C. Hardware snapshots can be utilized for virtual machine recovery and virtual volume restore
D. Tivoli Storage FlashCopy Manager uses vCenter APIs to integrate with Tivoli Storage Manager
for long term retention
E. Further storage reduction by moving VMDK files to a Tivoli Storage Productivity Center storage
pool for long term retention
Answer: B,C

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NO.8 In the Storwize V7000.,what is the Node Canister?
A. A group of 5 drives
B. The controller ERU
C. The power supply/fan ERU
D. Disk expansion interconnect ERU
Answer: B

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Exam Code: A2010-656
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NO.1 A sales representative has been meeting with the IT Director, and discussing the small
footprint and capacity of the DCS3700 and how this solution would allow them to add the needed
capacity in a very small footprint. The IT Director has agreed to purchase the DCS3700 if the IT staff
can perform day-to-day management of the new storage solution without extensive training.
What tool would be used to demonstrate the management capabilities of the DCS3700?
A. Capacity Magic
B. Disk Magic
C. DDP Calculator Tool
D. Storage Manager/Simulator
Answer: D

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NO.2 A customer has a large campus facility and needs to connect storage in two different buildings
that are 1 km apart. Which of the following cables would be used?
A. SAS
B. SCSI
C. Single-mode fiber
D. Multi-mode fiber
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which IBM resource would a Business Partner without access to lab equipment use to provide
a client proof of concept?
A. IBM Innovation Center
B. IBM Techline Pre-sales Support
C. IBM Competeline
D. IBM PartnerWorld
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which type of drive would be the most cost effective for tier 3 level data?
A. Nearline SAS
B. SSD
C. Fibre Channel
D. SCSI
Answer: A

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NO.5 Based on the LTO standard, what is the published data compression rate of LTO-6?
A. 2.0:1
B. 2.5:1
C. 3.5:1
D. 5.0:1
Answer: B

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NO.6 A customer is in need of archiving a great amount of medical records for a government
research project. These records are of patients, diseases, treatments and results. These records will
be built over the term of 5 years and need to be archived for 20 years.
What would be the best solution to store these records and provide maximum and efficient record
access?
A. Tape Encryption
B. Tivoli Key Lifecycle Manager
C. Linear Tape File System
D. Tivoli Endpoint Manager
Answer: C

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NO.7 On Monday, Wednesday and Friday a customer completes a backup of only the files that are
changed from the previous full backup.
This is referred to as what type of backup?
A. incremental backup
B. differential backup
C. full backup
D. partial file backup
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which application would the technical specialist recommend for an application specific
point-intime copy?
A. IBM Systems Director
B. Tivoli Storage Manager
C. Tivoli Storage Productivity Center
D. Tivoli StorageFlashCopyManager
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which query displays information about client node server storage utilization?
A. AUDITLIBRARY
B. AUDIT VOLUME
C. QUERY STORAGE POOL
D. QUERY AUDITOCCUPANCY
Answer: D

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NO.2 A company is adding virtual machines to their environment. What is the most effective
way to allow file
level backups?
A. VMware Consolidated Backup
B. Volume Shadow Service Virtual Snapshot
C. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Microsoft Hyper-V
D. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Virtual Environments
Answer: D

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NO.3 A customer environment is going through a lifecycle process where legacy
applications and old backup
infrastructure will be consolidated and migrated to an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM)
backup
environment. The consolidated applications consist of one Windows server containing small
files and four
LAN-free MS Exchange servers. The TSM environment is operating at 90% of its capacity
and consists of
one TSM server backing up to an IBM 3583 library with four LT04 drives. The current backup
environment
uses a GigE dedicated backup network. Which list of hardware components should be
documented and
provided to the customer in order to add the new servers to the backup infrastructure?
A. four HBAs and additional LT04 drives
B. five GigE NICs and additional LT04 drives
C. one HBAs, four GigE NICs, and additional LT03 drives
D. four HBAs, five GigE NICs, and additional LT04 drives
Answer: D

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NO.4 The customer is running database applications for geological data and the amount of
data is growing
tremendously. The database server handles more than 30 TB of data. A month ago the IT
environment
was audited and feedback was that the recovery time of the database server took too much
time. The
customer has all the data on an IBM SAN volume controller. The data is backed up by IBM
Tivoli Storage
Manager (TSM). Which product solution gives a better Recovery Time Objective and should
be in the
proposal?
A. IBM Tivoli Storage FlashCopy Manager
B. IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center for Data
C. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager FastBack + repository of 40 TB
D. IBM SAN Storage 30 TB +Global Mirroring License + IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity
Center for
Replication
Answer: A

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NO.5 The customer environment analysis has identified benefits by improving backup
granularity. IBM Tivoli
Storage Manager (TSM) FastBack can be integrated with IBM Tivoli Storage Manager to
improve
recovery. Which feature does TSM FastBack integration add to accomplish this?
A. multi-session backup
B. bare machine recovery
C. block-level incremental backups
D. progressive incremental backups
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which difference is reflected in a gap analysis?
A. between software versions
B. between expected and actual results
C. between storage capacity and actual usage
D. between actual and projected labor requirements
Answer: B

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data by using a
chronological and event-based data retention policy?
A. IBM Information Archive
B. IBMTS7560GProtecTier
C. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager DR550
D. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Extended Edition
Answer: A

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requirements?
A. IBM Tivoli Netcool
B. IBM Tivoli Asset Manager
C. IBM Tivoli Common Reporting
D. IBM Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring
Answer: C

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NO.1 Which application shows data storage trending for the customer's storage
requirements?
A. IBM Tivoli Netcool
B. IBM Tivoli Asset Manager
C. IBM Tivoli Common Reporting
D. IBM Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring
Answer: C

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NO.2 The customer environment analysis has identified benefits by improving backup
granularity. IBM Tivoli
Storage Manager (TSM) FastBack can be integrated with IBM Tivoli Storage Manager to
improve
recovery. Which feature does TSM FastBack integration add to accomplish this?
A. multi-session backup
B. bare machine recovery
C. block-level incremental backups
D. progressive incremental backups
Answer: C

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NO.3 A customer has two 5 TB MS SQL databases with critical data to the business. Which
products should
be recommended to the customer in order to run database backups online with optimal
performance?
A. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSMJ for Databases and TSM API
B. TSM for Databases and TSM for Storage Area Networks
C. TSM for Databases and TSM for Enterprise Resource Planning
D. TSM for Databases and IBM Tivoli Continuous Data Protection for Databases
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which difference is reflected in a gap analysis?
A. between software versions
B. between expected and actual results
C. between storage capacity and actual usage
D. between actual and projected labor requirements
Answer: B

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NO.5 A customer environment is going through a lifecycle process where legacy
applications and old backup
infrastructure will be consolidated and migrated to an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM)
backup
environment. The consolidated applications consist of one Windows server containing small
files and four
LAN-free MS Exchange servers. The TSM environment is operating at 90% of its capacity
and consists of
one TSM server backing up to an IBM 3583 library with four LT04 drives. The current backup
environment
uses a GigE dedicated backup network. Which list of hardware components should be
documented and
provided to the customer in order to add the new servers to the backup infrastructure?
A. four HBAs and additional LT04 drives
B. five GigE NICs and additional LT04 drives
C. one HBAs, four GigE NICs, and additional LT03 drives
D. four HBAs, five GigE NICs, and additional LT04 drives
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which currently marketed IBM product allows a customer to store large amounts of
data by using a
chronological and event-based data retention policy?
A. IBM Information Archive
B. IBMTS7560GProtecTier
C. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager DR550
D. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Extended Edition
Answer: A

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NO.7 A company is adding virtual machines to their environment. What is the most effective
way to allow file
level backups?
A. VMware Consolidated Backup
B. Volume Shadow Service Virtual Snapshot
C. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Microsoft Hyper-V
D. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Virtual Environments
Answer: D

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NO.8 What should be done to complete the Solution Project after collecting customer
requirements and
educational/experience level of personnel, creating a solution design and proposal, and
presenting the
solution proposal?
A. have a formal IT Management sign-off on the purchase order
B. schedule a formal service review with the chief operations officer and staff
C. execute a formal review with the IT manager to confirm acceptance and solution
compliance
D. schedule a formal customer sign-off on the proposed Scope Document or Statement of
Work
Answer: D

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NO.1 During the start up phase of a project the PM is preparing the project management plan. Who
should approve the plan and fully commit to the execution of it?
A. The CT Head.
B. The Head of NI Region/Sub region.
C. The Head of GS Region/Sub region.
D. The Head of PMS of the Region/Sub region.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which KPI can assist the PM in the analysis of a Gross Margin deviation?
A. PARD
B. RA
C. PCA
D. SILT
Answer: C

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NO.3 What are necessary inputs for the creation of a rollout plan?
A. Activity sequence, duration, resource requirements and schedule constraints.
B. List of deliverables, dependencies and estimated completion time.
C. Main milestones and activity duration.
D. Site process, activity sequencing and duration.
Answer: A

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NO.4 How should integration engineer resources be planned for the RA network integration?
A. Include an estimation of local resources in the project headcount.
B. Prepare an RFQ for external suppliers with the support of Procurement.
C. Include the input from GNIC into your service cost estimation.
D. Communicate the need of integration engineers for your project during the MRM (Monthly
Resource Meeting).
Answer: C

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7. What is RTI?
A. Interface between Site quality module and IPM.
B. Interface between SAP and IPM.
C. An external database linking SAP and E-doc
D. Interface between Change management and Quality module.
Answer: B

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8. When does the PM need to update NELLE with customer/project data?
A. At year end.
B. After the customer forecast is received.
C. Per STP .
D. At least once a month, before period cut-off.
Answer: D

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9. As part of the start-up activities the PM is defining a communication plan. What is the content
of such a plan?
A. Share of responsibility, project organisation chart and escalation process.
B. Employee list with phone numbers and e-mail addresses, CT/project organisation and
communication matrix.
C. Communication matrix, meeting practices, project reporting practices, documentation needs and
escalation process.
D. Employee list with phone numbers and e-mail addresses, subcontractor list and customer
addresses.
Answer: C

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10. What is the correct GIC to plan costs related to payment of a subcontractor responsible for
BTS commissioning?
A. 7331 Implementation.
B. 7332 Site Acquisition.
C. 7348 Project Management.
D. 7333 Construction Works.
Answer: A

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11. What is NOT a risk response strategy?
A. Share.
B. Ignore.
C. Enhance.
D. Mitigate.
Answer: B

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12. In today's project status meeting with the customer, the customer PM stated the following: "
The supplier of the transmission network has a huge delay, you can't start with your activities at the
moment".How does the PM react?
A. Make a re-planning of the project and immediately release the resources.
B. Start discussions about possible claims immediately in the meeting in order to have them on the
table already.
C. Initiate a meeting with the relevant stakeholders in NSN (CT, SSM's, project members) in order to
align the way forward and up sell strategy.
D. No reaction needed as the resources can be utilised for other projects.
Answer: C

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13. Which of the following is included in the scope statement?
A. Cost baseline.
B. Project quality plan.
C. Project plan.
D. Project deliverables.
Answer: D

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14. In turnkey projects ...
A. ... Site acquisition and permitting very often turns out to become a critical bottleneck in the
projects. It is therefore highly recommended to plan very carefully for Site acquisition and
permitting and to develop a contingency plan.
B. ... Site acquisition and permitting as well as construction works are key competences in NSN.
Consequently these services should preferably NOT be outsourced to subcontractors.
C. ... if a base station site is connected via optical fiber transmission link to the network it is
important that a Line-of-Sight check is performed during site acquisition to ensure no obstacles
would interfere with the connection to the adjacent site.
D. ... revenue for Constructions Works services typically is comparatively small compared to revenue
for Site Acquisition&Permitting.
Answer: A

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15. When are sales usually recognized?
A. When goods receipt is posted in SAP .
B. When subcontractor invoice is received.
C. When the customer pays the invoice.
D. When the service is completed.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Who is responsible to present the project results in the Project Review Meetings?
A. Project Manager with support of the CPM.
B. CPM and F&C.
C. CPM with support of the Project Manager.
D. Project Controller.
Answer: A

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NO.6 The NI Performance Indicator SILT gives an understanding of...
A. ...the performance of Telecom Implementation Services.
B. ...the lead times of site infrastructure material.
C. ...the cash flow in the project.
D. ...the performed service quality.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: A2010-599
Exam Name: IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V5.1 Implementation
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NO.1 The configuration screen of the IBM Enterprise Marketing Management portlet is most similar
to which offering?
A. IBM Digital Analytics
B. IBM Interact Campaign
C. IBM Web Content Viewer portlet
D. IBM Web Application Bridge portlet
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which portal application requires an IBM Worklight Server to be installed with IBM
WebSphere Portal?
A. direct update services
B. Authentication Service with Anonymous access
C. a shell application using a web view to render markup from the WebSphere Portal site
D. Authentication Service with access through WebSphere Portal or Web Content Manager
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which environment should be selected for a company that experiences random high load
situations that might benefit from automatically adding cluster members to serve requests?
A. portal farm environment
B. static clustered environment
C. priority clustered environment
D. dynamic clustered environment
Answer: D

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NO.4 The Outbound HTTP Connection is used to replace which service?
A. Ajax Proxy Service
B. Web Content REST Service
C. Web Content Caching Service
D. Portal Access Control Service
Answer: A

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NO.5 Steve is investigating a problem by using the Theme Optimization Analyzer portlet. He verified
that the visibility is set correctly for the device and contributions of resources.
How can he determine whether the client loaded the module?
A. Enable tracing and investigate the log files.
B. Use the console. debug () and console. log () statements to display ibmCf g object values.
C. Use the module list of the server path to determine whether the client loaded the module by
using the browser-based tools.
D. Export all theme definitions to modify the advanced features such as the metadata, resource root,
default layout, or theme template definition.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Before a marketer can use the IBM Marketing Center Spot Portlet, what must the IBM
WebSphere Portal administrator do?
A. Enable the Portal Active Site Analytics feature.
B. Go to the portlet configuration and define the correct client ID.
C. Add the marketer to the contributor role for the analytic overlay graph.
D. Go to the portlet configuration and define the correct interaction point.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which feature is deprecated as of IBM WebSphere Portal 8.5?
A. syndication
B. LDAPtoken
C. active credentials
D. passive credentials
Answer: B

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Exam Code: C2090-303
Exam Name: IBM InfoSphere DataStage v9.1
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Exam Code: C4070-623
Exam Name: System z Cloud and Linux Solution Selling
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NO.1 Which System z Cloud feature provides scalability to meet Service Level Agreements without
over-provisioning to meet peak capacity, like Teradata and ExaData?
A. HiperSockets
B. HiperDispatch
C. Level 4 Cache
D. On/Off Capacity on Demand
Answer: D

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NO.2 Why would System z Cloud be an advantage for a customer with limited human IT resources?
A. It requires less administration.
B. It costs less per virtual machine.
C. It uses less space in the data center.
D. It consumes less power in the data center
Answer: A

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NO.3 How can a customer improve consistency in its application server environment?
A. Using SmartCloud Workbench
B. Using SmartCloud Audit Control
C. Updating existing servers using Tivoli Provisioning Manager
D. Keeping servers the same using Tivoli Provisioning Manager
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is the recommended first step when implementing System z Cloud?
A. Cooling water
B. Seismic evaluation
C. Energy assessment
D. Direct current availability
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which feature of System z processor virtualization reduces the latency of cross partition
communications?
A. HiperSockets
B. HyperTransport
C. QuickPath Interconnect (QPI)
D. Jupiter Interconnect System Bus Architecture
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which solution offering is only available for the System z platform?
A. CloudBurst
B. SmartCloud
C. CloudSpace
D. CloudReady
Answer: D

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NO.7 A large software development company that works with customer critical data is losing profits
because of inconsistent versions of its products that several clients use. This situation is causing
customers to migrate to a different solution.
How can a Cloud environment help reduce costs without compromising the security of the data?
A. The patch management capabilities in a System z Cloud maintains the application and
middleware versions.
B. Adopting a private Cloud solution will give the software company a faster go-to-market and
obtain new customers to replace lost revenue.
C. A public Cloud with one application and database server per customer provides the necessary
controls of the application and middleware version with lower cost.
D. A public Cloud with a unique database server and a unique application server for all customers
guarantees that all systems would be at the same release and also provides security.
Answer: A

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NO.8 A customer wants to build an Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) model to host external Cloud
services. Which product is needed to move toward this objective?
A. xCAT
B. TOSCA
C. SmartCloud Control Desk
D. SmartCloud Cost Management
Answer: A

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Exam Name: High Volume Storage Fundamentals V3
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Exam Code: A2040-405
Exam Name: Assessment: IBM Notes and Domino 9.0 Social Edition System Administration Update
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NO.1 If both the IBM iNotes and IBM Notes clients are being used, what should the "Session
authentication" field be set to in the Server document > Internet Protocols > Domino Web Engine
tab on the IBM Domino server running Shindig?
A. none
B. Disabled
C. Single Server
D. Multiple Servers (SSO)
Answer: D

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NO.2 An IBM Notes user kills the Notes client while its still busy waiting for input, and this results in
a new record in the Fault Reports database.
How will this type of crash be categorized in the version 9.0 By Disposition view?
A. Problem category
B. Informational category
C. Possible Problem (possibly actionable) category
D. Possible Problem (likely NOT actionable) category
Answer: C

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NO.3 Nancy is configuring an internet site document for federated login, but when she clicks on the
IdP Catalog button to select an IdP Configuration document, she cannot open the IdP Catalog
application. What could be the cause of this problem?
A. Nancy does not have access rights to the IdP Catalog Application.
B. The Open Social Component is not installed on her IBM Notes client.
C. Nancy does not have rights to run unrestricted agents on the IBM Domino server.
D. Nancy's Workstation ECL does not recognize the signer of the IdP Catalog Application.
Answer: A

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NO.4 What tool is used to configure Tivoli Federated Identity Manager as the identity provider for
IBM Domino?
A. notes.ini file
B. IBM Notes client
C. Domino Web Administrator
D. Integrated Solutions Console
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which document is used to configure IBM Docs integration with IBM Domino?
A. Server document
B. Person document
C. Server Configuration document
D. Mail Policy Settings document
Answer: D

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NO.6 How can an IBM Domino administrator set all new personal contacts created by users to be
private by default?
A. In the mail policy settings document, enable "Create new contacts as private by default".
B. In the desktop policy settings document, enable "Mark new contacts as private by default".
C. In the security policy settings document, enable "Create new contacts as private by default".
D. In the Server configuration document, in the iNotes settings, enable "Mark new contacts as
private by default".
Answer: B

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NO.7 Jan wants to create a Program document in order to run the new Database Maintenance Tool
(dbmt) for mail files on the IBM Domino server. What are two adjustments that Jan must make to
the server's notes.ini file before creating the Program document? (Choose two.)
A. Remove Updall from the Server Tasks lines in the notes.ini.
B. Set MailFileDisableCompactAbort=1 to temporarily stop the delivery of mail.
C. Set DBMT_FILTER=names.nsf to ensure the Domino Directory is not compacted.
D. Set dbmt-updallThreads=0 to have the Database Maintenance Tool skip operations performed by
Updall.
E. Set dbmt_stdr85mail=$Inbox,$Drafts,$All to ensure key views in mail databases that use the
StdR85Mail template are built.
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 Bill's users are complaining they want to have certain calendar entries more prominent in the
calendar view. How can Bill's users customize calendar entries to make certain entries more visible?
A. The user can assign a calendar entry to Important Meeting view.
B. The user can utilize the Add Highlight Color action from the Calendar Action bar.
C. The user can choose to add the importance flag to a calendar entry upon creation.
D. The user can use the "Color-code calendar entries by category" feature to highlight select
calendar entries.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: C2040-927
Exam Name: Developing Portlets and Web Applications with IBM Web Experience Factory 8.0
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Exam Name: DB2 9 DBA for Linux,UNIX and Windows
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NO.1 A transaction that receives a log disk full error (SQL0968C) will fail and be rolled back.
In order
to prevent the roll back, which of the following should be done?
A.Set BLK_LOG_DSK_FUL to NO
B.Set BLK_LOG_DSK_FUL to YES
C.Decrease space for the active log directory
D.Reduce the LOGPRIMARY, LOGSECOND and LOGFILSIZ
Correct:B

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NO.2 Which of the following settings would allow 20 sorts with a maximum of 10MB each to
run
concurrently on a 64-bit instance?
A.Set the DB SHEAPTHRES to 50000 and the DB SORTHEAP to 2500.
B.Set the DBM SHEAPTHRES to 50000 and the DB SORTHEAP to 2500.
C.Set the DBM SHEAPTHRES to 50000 and the DBM SORTHEAP to 2500.
D.Set the DBM SHEAPTHRES_SHR to 50000 and the DBM SHEAPTHRES to 2500.
Correct:B

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NO.3 What are the two security mechanisms that enable users to access DB2 data?
A.Authentication and Clearance
B.Authorization and Validation
C.Validation and Certification
D.Authentication and Authorization
Correct:D

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NO.4 A DBA needs to set the DIAGLEVEL configuration parameter to 4 while users are
connected to
the database. How can this change be implemented in a way that has a minimum impact to
the
environment?
A.Quiesce the database and update the parameter.
B.Attach to the instance and update the parameter.
C.Connect to the database in a single user mode and update the parameter.
D.Attach to the instance, update the parameter, stop and restart the instance.
Correct:B

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NO.5 A database named QA that was using archival logging crashed. An attempt to restart
it failed
with error code SQL0290N. Examination of the db2diag.log shows that the disk drive
containing
the system catalog table space SYSCATSPACE is not responding. Backup images of both
the QA
database and the SYSCATSPACE table space exist. After replacing the failed disk drive,
what is
the quickest method to bring the QA database back online?
A.Restore the QA database from the latest off-line backup image.
B.Restore the QA database from the latest off-line backup image and rollforward to end of
logs.
C.Restore the System Catalog table space from the latest SYSCATSPACE backup image
without rolling
forward.
D.Restore the System Catalog table space from the latest SYSCATSPACE backup image
and rollforward
to end of logs.
Correct:D

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NO.6 When a table is altered and a column is added for secured access by Label Based
Access
Control (LBAC), what column type should be used?
A.DB2SECURITY
B.DB2LABELSECURITY
C.DB2SECURITYLABEL
D.DB2SECURITYDBLABEL
Correct:C

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NO.7 Given the following situation: Table space ts1 with tables t1, t2, t3 Table space ts2 with
tables t4,
t5 Tables t1 and t4 have defined referential integrity on them (t1 is the parent, t4 is the child)
What
happens after restoring the table space ts1 and issuing the following command? db2
rollforward
db sample to 2006-06-16-14.21.56 and stop tablespace(ts1)
A.The roll forward is executed to the end of logs.
B.The roll forward is not executed and an error message is generated.
C.The roll forward is executed and table t4 is placed in set integrity pending state.
D.The roll forward is executed and tables t1 and t4 are placed in set integrity pending state.
Correct:C

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NO.8 A database administrator has HADR enabled and wants to do a LOAD WITH COPY
NO option on
the primary server. What happens on the standby server?
A.The Load is replicated without problems.
B.The Load will stop with an appropriate error message.
C.The Load will be automatically converted to NONRECOVERABLE and the standby
database will be
marked bad.
D.The Load will be automatically converted to COPY YES if the directory or device specified
on the
primary server is accessible for the standby database.
Correct:C

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