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Exam Code: HP0-J14
Exam Name: HP StorageWorks ASE 2008 Delta Exam
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Exam Code: HP0-A21
Exam Name: NonStop Kernel Basics
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Exam Code: HP3-C30
Exam Name: HP LaserJet Fundamentals - Refresh
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NO.1 Which multi-path drivers are included in the MPIO driver package? (Select three.)
A. bus driver
B. port filter driver
C. Secure Path driver
D. system state driver
E. disk driver replacement
F. matrix storage manager driver
Answer: ABE

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NO.2 Which resource can you use to identify supported switch and HBA firmware releases in an MSA2012fc
storage environment?
A. MSA2012fc website
B. MSA2012fc Streams
C. MSA2012fc User Guide
D. MSA2012fc Quick Specs
E. MSA2012fc Best Practices
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which types of spares are available in an MSA2000? (Select three.)
A. vdisk spare
B. array spare
C. global spare
D. default spare
E. dynamic spare
F. dedicated spare
Answer: ACE

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NO.4 When does the data become available to the application during the MSA2000 snapshot rollback
process?
A. immediately
B. after a restart of the application
C. when the rollback process has completed
D. while the rollback process completes in the background
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is the maximum number of users that can be logged into an MSA2012 (fc or i) controller at any
one time?
A. 3 monitor and 1 manage
B. 3 monitor and 2 manage
C. 5 monitor and 1 manage
D. 5 monitor and 2 manage
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is a hidden MSA2000 volume that contains pre-allocated reserve space for snapshot data?
A. snap pool
B. rollback pool
C. target volume
D. master volume
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is the impact of dequarantining a virtual disk if not enough of its drives are available to maintain
the selected RAID level?
A. The virtual disk RAID level is reduced.
B. The virtual disk stays in quarantine until disks are added.
C. The virtual disk goes critical and the sparing routine is called.
D. The virtual disk goes offline and its data cannot be recovered.
Answer: D

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NO.8 You are attempting to restore a saved configuration file. You have selected Manage > Utilities >
Configuration Utilities > Restore Config File inside the HP StorageWorks MSA Storage Management
Utility. What do you select next?
A. Next
B. Master Controller
C. IP Address option
D. previously saved configuration file
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP2-T17
Exam Name: Servicing HP Proliant ML/DL/SL Servers
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Exam Code: HP0-S18
Exam Name: Implementing HP ProLiant ML/DL Servers
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NO.1 Which operating system has support for the ZFS filesystem?
A.Sun Solaris
B.Windows Server 2008 R2 x64 Enterprise Edition
C.Novell NetWare 6.5
D.Novell SLES 10
Answer: A

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NO.2 How many memory channels are there in a 2 processor DDR3-based server.?
A.2 channels
B.3 channels
C.4 channels
D.6 channels
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which processors use hyperthreading? (Select two.)
A.Intel single core processors
B.AMD dual core processors
C.AMD quad core processors
D.Intel dual core processors
Answer: AD

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NO.4 Which RAID level does Smart Array Advanced Pack (SAAP) employ to enhance performance,
reliability and availability?
A.RAID 1+0
B.RAID 5
C.RAID 6+0
D.RAID 5+0
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is required to support each installed HP 10Gb network adapter in a ProLiant server?
A.dedicated 2GB RAM
B.quad-core CPU
C.QuickPath architecture
D.internal PCI-X 2.0
Answer: A

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NO.6 For the Intel x5570 Series processors in the HP ProLiant SL2x170z G6, what does the letter "x"
preceding the processor model number indicate?
A.extreme performance
B.lower wattage
C.turbo boost performance
D.high performance/wattage
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which components are under the control of Dynamic Power Management on Intel Xeon 5500 Series
(Nehalem) based servers? (Select two.)
A.chipset
B.PCI-e cards
C.hard drives
D.CPU
E.fans
Answer: AD

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NO.8 On Intel Xeon 5500 Series (Nehalem) based servers, where is the memory controller located?
A.processor socket
B.processor core
C.HyperTransport Bus
D.Front Side Bus
Answer: B

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HP2-H21 Actual Test, HP2-B65 Real Exams

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Exam Code: HP2-H21
Exam Name: Technical Essentials of HP Workstations
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Exam Code: HP2-B65
Exam Name: HP Imaging and Printing Sales Fundamentals
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NO.1 When would a company typically use outsourced printing.?
A. when they have several small print jobs
B. when medium or high volumes of static documents are required
C. when confidential document printing is required
D. when short turnaround time is required
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which imaging and printing trend is an industry trend?
A. seeking information on the Internet
B. convergence of multiple functions into one device
C. using templates to create a business brand
D. paperless offices
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is the HP Marketing Resource Center?
A. a new HP service for HP partners who provide printed marketing material on demand
B. anew HP print center for end users who provide customer-designed marketing material
C. anewly created team of marketing experts that provide in-house training for HP partners
D. anHP resource for document templates, free training classes, and success stories
Answer: D

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NO.4 What should a business do before deciding to print in-house?
A. determine if they can get a bulk discount on glossy paper
B. use the HP Print Cost Calculator to determine if it is cost effective to print a job in-house
C. hire a local print shop employee on a contract basis to help develop in-house material
D. find a contractor to create the design
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is the advantage of a multifunction printer? A. It can be networked to more end users than a
networked single function printer.
B. It uses fewer supplies than a single function printer.
C. It takes up less floor space than individual devices for faxing, scanning, printing and copying.
D. Once it has reached its monthly print volume it automatically turns off so there are no excess
copy charges to the client.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: QQ0-100
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Exam Code: HD0-200
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Exam Code: HD0-400
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NO.1 For which two reasons do help desk's log all calls? (Choose two.)
A. Allows ticket monitoring
B. Measure frequency of calls
C. Prove the help desk is right
D. Provide an audit trail of activities
Answer: BD

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NO.2 Which two are effective techniques for dealing with stress? (Choose two.)
A. Take long breaks
B. Set realistic goals/objectives
C. Exercise and observe good nutrition practices
D. Use high energy drinks, e.g., coffee, caffeine drinks to keep energy levels up
Answer: BC

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NO.3 You are having a trouble understanding a customer with a strong accent. The first thing you should do
is ______?
A. Find someone else who can understand the customer better
B. Tell the customer you are having difficulty understanding them
C. Ask the customer is there is someone else in their organisation for you to talk to
D. Inform the customer that you cannot understand them and there is nothing you can do to help them
Answer: B

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NO.4 What should you do to assess a customer level of knowledge? What should you do to assess a
customer? level of knowledge?
A. Ask open questions
B. Ask closed questions
C. Provide more detailed explanations
D. Assume the customer has a basic level of knowledge
Answer: A

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NO.5 What are three reasons for providing consistent service? (Choose three.)
A. To guarantee professionalism
B. To instill confidence in your customer
C. To ensure a commitment to excellence
D. To ensure empathy to customer needs
Answer: ABC

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NO.6 Which two organisational characteristics are typically found in a supportive workplace environment?
(Choose two.)
A. High employee morale
B. Low employee turnover
C. High adherence to policies
D. Low superior-subordinate interaction
Answer: AB

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NO.7 A customer calls with a printing problem. You start the troubleshooting process by asking some simple
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be used to obtain necessary information to solve the problem? (Choose three.)
A. Ask the customer if he is the only one who can print to this printer
B. Ask the customer if a start button or disk icon appears on the screen
C. Ask the customer if he has experienced any problems recently with any other applications
D. Guide the customer through checking the printer connection and making sure the power is turned on
Answer: ACD

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NO.8 An analyst has conveyed incorrect information to a customer. Which action demonstrates personal
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A. The analyst has another analyst call the customer
B. The analyst closes the call and moves to the next call
C. The analyst calls the customer back to correct the information
D. The analyst calls the customer back and blames the incorrect information on bad documentation
Answer: C

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NO.1 Which of the following statements are correct regarding the antivirus scanning function on the FortiGate
unit?
A.Antivirus scanning can be configured to block certain file types and patterns.
B.Antivirus scanning provides end-to-end virus protection for client workstations.
C.Antivirus scanning provides virus protection for the HTTP, Telnet, SMTP, and FTP protocols.
D.Antivirus scanning supports banned word checking.
E.Antivirus scanning supports grayware protection.
Answer:AE

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NO.2 When viewing the Banned User tab in User Monitor in Web Config, the administrator notes the entry
illustrated in the exhibit. Which of the following statements is correct regarding this entry?
A.The entry displays a ban that has been added as a result of traffic triggering a configured DLP rule.
B.The entry displays a ban that was triggered by HTTP traffic matching an IPS signature. This client is
banned from receiving or sending any traffic through the FortiGate.
C.The entry displays a quarantine, which could have been added by either IPS or DLP.
D.This entry displays a ban entry that was added manually by the administrator on Dec 24th.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which part of an email message exchange is not inspected by the POP3 and IMAP proxies?
A.TCP connection
B.Protocol commands
C.Message headers
D.Message body
Answer: A

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NO.4 The transfer of encrypted files or the use of encrypted protocols between users and servers on the
internet can frustrate the efforts of administrators attempting to monitor traffic passing through the
FortiGate unit and ensuring user compliance to corporate rules.
Which of the following items will allow the administrator to control the transfer of encrypted data through
the FortiGate unit?
A.Encrypted protocols can be scanned through the use of the SSL proxy.
B.DLP rules can be used to block the transmission of encrypted files.
C.Firewall authentication can be enabled in the firewall policy, preventing the use of encrypted
communications channels.
D.Application control can be used to monitor the use of encrypted protocols; alerts can be sent to the
administrator through email when the use of encrypted protocols is attempted.
Answer: AB

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NO.5 Which of the following items are considered to be advantages of using the application control features
on the FortiGate unit?
A.Application control provides application detection regardless of the port used by the application.
B.Application control allows session-ttl to be customized for specific application types.
C.Application control allows custom application types to be added in a similar way to adding custom IPS
signatures.
D.Application control allows an administrator to check which applications are installed on workstations
attempting to access the network.
Answer: AB

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NO.6 Which of the following describes the difference between the ban and quarantine actions?
A.A ban action prevents future transactions using the same protocol which triggered the ban. A qarantine
action blocks all future transactions, regardless of the protocol.
B.A ban action blocks the transaction. A quarantine action archives the data.
C.A ban action has a finite duration. A quarantine action must be removed by an administrator.
D.A ban action is used for known users. A quarantine action is used for unknown users.
Answer: A

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NO.7 A DLP rule with an action of Exempt has been matched against traffic passing through the FortiGate
unit. Which of the following statements is correct regarding how this transaction will be handled by the
FortiGate unit?
A.Any other matched DLP rules will be ignored with the exception of Archiving.
B.Any other matched DLP rules are ignored.
C.The traffic matching the DLP rule will bypass antivirus scanning.
D.The client IP address will be added to a white list.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following describes the best custom signature for detecting the use of the word "Fortinet" in
chat applications.?
The sample packet trace illustrated in the exhibit provides details on the packet that requires detection.
A.F-SBID( --protocol tcp; --flow from_client; --pattern "X-MMS-IM-Format"; --pattern "fortinet"; --no_case; )
B.F-SBID( --protocol tcp; --flow from_client; --pattern "fortinet"; --no_case; )
C.F-SBID( --protocol tcp; --flow from_client; --pattern "X-MMS-IM-Format"; --pattern "fortinet"; --within 20;
--no_case; )
D.F-SBID( --protocol tcp; --flow from_client; --pattern "X-MMS-IM-Format"; --pattern "fortinet"; --within
20; )
Answer:A

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NO.1 Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?
A. Service Desk staff should be recruited from people who have high levels of technical skill tominimize
the cost of training them
B. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more technical or
supervisory roles
C. The Service Desk should try to have a high level of staff turnover as the training requirements are low
and this helps to minimize salaries
D. Service Desk staff should be discouraged from applying for other roles as it is more cost effective to
keep them in the role where they have been trained
Answer: B

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NO.2 Effective release and deployment management enables the service provider to add value to the
business by?
A. Ensuring that all assets are accounted for
B. Ensures that the fastest servers are purchased
C. Delivering change, faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk
D. Verifying the accuracy of all items in the configuration management database
Answer: C

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NO.3 The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called the?
A. Emergency CAB (ECAB)
B. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
C. Urgent Change Board (UCB)
D. CAB Emergency Committee (CAB/EC)
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?
A. A change to the service provider's established policies and guidelines
B. A pre-authorized change that has an accepted and established procedure
C. A change that is made as the result of an audit
D. A change that correctly follows the required change process
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?
A. Service Desk staff should be recruited from people who have high levels of technical skill tominimize
the cost of training them
B. Service Desk staff should be discouraged from applying for other roles as it is more cost effective to
keep them in the role where they have been trained
C. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more technical or
supervisory roles
D. The Service Desk should try to have a high level of staff turnover as the training requirements are low
and this helps to minimize salaries
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following is the correct set of steps for the continual service improvement
model/approach.?
A. Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate the solution; Continually
improve
B. Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we have arrived?; How do we
keep the momentum going?
C. Identify the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes; Implement the plan;
Check the plan has been properly implemented; Improve the solution
D. What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; Did we get
there?; How do we keep the momentum going?
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
B. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization
C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management Databases
(CMDB)
D. The SKMS can include user skill levels
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following is NOT an example of Self-Help capabilities?
A. Requirement to always call the service desk for service requests
B. Menu-driven range of self help and service requests
C. Web front-end
D. A direct interface into the back end process handling software
Answer: A

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NO.1 The aims of an SOA Program include: (Choose all that apply.)
A. The establishment of governance to standardize the way that functionality is delivered and deployed
for use by the entire enterprise.
B. The delivery of enterprise architecture that facilitates the sharing of functionality as services in a way
that is measurable and manageable and
meets operational goals.
C. The establishment of governance to standardize the way that enterprise information systems are
coded.
D. Providing accountability to the business for the translation of business requirements into information
technology.
E. The synthesis of business strategy and goals and the delivery cycles of projects into a roadmap for the
creation and deployment of shared
services.
F. The development of any service that is to be delivered to the enterprise.
Answer: ABDE

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NO.2 What is the purpose of a Reference Architecture?
A. To provide a frame of reference for discussion of enterprise architecture concerns.
B. To provide linkage between the architecture of a given enterprise and certain of the enterprise
architecture frameworks, such as TOGAF or
Zachmann.
C. To define the reference material from which answers to questions about enterprise architecture may be
drawn.
D. To provide a comprehensive enterprise architecture that constitutes the correct, best practices-based
approach to constructing a modern
enterprise.
Answer: A

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NO.3 How is SOA different from previous approaches involving the sharing of information assets? (Choose
all that apply.)
A. SOA is an enterprise architecture approach that does not specify a given technology or vendor
solution.
B. SOA embodies the concept of run-time, rather than development-time or code level reuse.
C. SOA provides detailed specifications meant to provide a maximum of assurance of interoperability
among supporting technologies and vendor
solutions.
D. The basis of SOA in XML and other standards provides true platform agnosticism.
Answer: ABD

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NO.4 When is SOA NOT an appropriate strategy? (Choose all that apply.)
A. When the applications in a given enterprise are necessarily stand-alone, and thus would not benefit
from a shared services approach.
B. When the political boundaries among lines of business and their related IT functions are
insurmountable, making sharing of functionality as
services impossible.
C. When the information systems in a given enterprise are homogeneous from a technological
perspective and thus the sharing of functionality
among them is essentially built into their construction.
D. When enterprise business processes are widely distributed across the information systems for
separate lines of business and are embedded
in the integration among those systems.
E. When application lifecycles are very short, and thus the effort to share functionality among them cannot
be offset by gains from reuse.
F. When a given enterprise has dozens or hundreds of information systems for which the exposing of
functionality from those systems as
services would be an extremely complex operation.
Answer: ACE

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NO.5 Which of the following provides the best definition of SOA?
A. SOA is a software engineering paradigm that prescribes the creation of loosely coupled interfaces
between the consumers of functionality and
the applications that represent that functionality.
B. SOA is a collection of technologies like enterprise service bus and Web Service management that
facilitate the delivery of enterprise
functionality as a set of services.
C. SOA is an IT strategy that organizes the discrete functions contained in enterprise applications into
interoperable, standards-based services
that can be combined and reused quickly to meet business needs.
D. SOA is a collection of standards, best practices, architectural models, and software development
methodologies, principally based on Web
Services, which may be incorporated into enterprise software engineering to provide information
technology to an enterprise in a
standards-based way.
Answer: C

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Exam Name: OS X v10.8 Troubleshooting Exam
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NO.1 In an environment in which a server is providing services to connected clients, which statement best
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A.The total capacity of various resources, such as CPU processor cycles,RAM, bandwidth, and storage
B.The amount of usage of various resources, such as CPU processor cycles, RAM, bandwidth, and
storage
C.The ratio of usage to capacity of various resources, such as CPU processor cycles, RAM, bandwidth,
and storage
D.The difference between usage and capacity of various resources,such as CPU processor cycles, RAM,
bandwidth, and storage
Answer:D

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NO.2 Your company has a Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer. You plan to configure a Mac OS X Server
v10.5 computer to provide mail service to the Mac OS X v10.5 client computers on your intranet. You want
to generate and sign a certificate as a root authority, and use the certificate for the mail service. What is
the correct order for every step? (1).Use the openssl command in Terminal to sign the key (2).Use Server
Admin to import the key and to configure the mail service to use the key. (3).On the server, use the
Certificate Assistant to generate the key (4).Copy the certificate onto each client and add the certificate to
the client's keychain using Keychain Access.
A.(1).(3).(2).(4)
B.(4).(3).(2).(1)
C.(3).(1).(2).(4)
D.(2).(3).(1).(4)
Answer:C

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NO.3 Your company has a Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer. How should you understand the upgrade
history of a Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer?
A.You should check the history of installation activity in the install.log file.
B.You should check the list of applied Apple updates in the swupd.plist file.
C.You should check the list of applied Apple updates in the swupd.conf file.
D.You should check the contents of the /Library/Receipts/ folder to determine which Apple updates have
been applied.
Answer:A D

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NO.4 Review the Xserve configuration details and specifications, then answer the question below. Xserve
(Early 2008): Two 3.0 GHz Quad-Core Intel Xeon processors Three 300 GB SAS Apple Drive Modules @
15,000 rpm Eight 4 GB 800 MHz DDR2 ECC fully-buffered DIMMs (RAM) Xserve RAID card ATI Radeon
X1300 Graphics with 64 MB RAM (no PCI cards) Power Consumption Thermal Output Idle CPU Max
CPU+Disk Max Idle CPU Max CPU+Disk Max 300 W 395 W 409 W 1021 BTU/h 1344 BTU/h 1391 BTU/h
What is the maximum number of Xserves, configured as described above, that can power up from a UPS
with a maximum rating of 3000VA?
A.4
B.5
C.6
D.7
Answer:A

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NO.5 You should review the contents of which TWO folders to understand the upgrade history of a Mac OS X
Server v10.5 computer?
A./var/log/
B./etc/swupd/
C./var/db/swupd/
D./Library/Receipts/
E./System/Library/Receipts/
Answer:A D

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NO.6 Your company has a Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer. When you join an AirPort Extreme Base
Station to the RADIUS service on a Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer, what role does the shared secret
perform?
A.The shared secret establishes a secure tunnel between the base station and the RADIUS server.
B.Clients authenticate using the shared secret as their password to gain access to the base station.
C.The shared secret generates a key that the base station uses to encrypt traffic between the RADIUS
server and the base station.
D.The key management system uses the shared secret as a token to establish trust between the RADIUS
server and the base station.
Answer:D

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NO.7 In an environment where a server is providing services to connected clients, which statement best
defines ? utilization?
A.The total capacity of various resources, such as CPU processor cycles,RAM, bandwidth, and storage
B.The amount of usage of various resources, such as CPU processor cycles, RAM, bandwidth, and
storage
C.The ratio of usage to capacity of various resources, such as CPU processor cycles, RAM, bandwidth,
and storage
D.The difference between usage and capacity of various resources,such as CPU processor cycles, RAM,
bandwidth, and storage
Answer:C

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NO.8 Which TWO tools can you use to determine the availability of services being provided by a Mac OS X
Server v10.5 computer?
A.iostat
B.tcpdump
C.netstat
D.Server Admin
E.Server Monitor
F.serveradmin
Answer:D F

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NO.1 .To set up PPPoE, which port must you configure?
A. AppleTalk
B. Ethernet
C. FireWire
D. Modem
Answer: B

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NO.2 .By default in Mac OS X v10.3, the contents of which folders in a user home directory can be
accessed by all other user accounts? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Documents
B. Library
C. Public
D. Music
E. Sites
Answer: C,E

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NO.3 .If Robert disables AppleTalk in the Directory Access utility on his iMac running Mac OS X v 10.3,
what is the result?
A. Robert cannot print to AppleTalk printers from his iMac.
B. Users on other computers cannot connect to Robert's iMac via AFP.
C. Robert iMac no longer discovers servers via AppleTalk.
D. Robert cannot connect to an AFP file server from his iMac.
Answer: C

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NO.4 .Mac OS X v10.3 supports which kinds of VPN connections? (Choose all that apply.)
A. PPoE
B. L2TP
C. PPTP
D. NAT
E. P2P
Answer: B,C

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NO.5 .Mac OS X v10.3 Internet Sharing lets you share your Internet connection with other users via
________. (Choose all that apply.)
A. AirPort
B. Ethernet
C. Bluetooth
D. Modem
E. USB
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 .Which statement about FileVault is TRUE?
A. FileVault can only be enabled for non-administrator user accounts.
B. Once a user enables FileVault, it cannot be disabled.
C. There is no way to recover a FileVault-protected account user data if the password is lost.
D. When a user enables FileVault, that user home directory is transferred into an encrypted disk
image.
Answer: D

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NO.7 .You are currently in the same directory as a file called "file 1". To view this file contents from the
command line you can type ________. (Choose all that apply.)
A. cat file 1
B. cat file\1
C. cat file \1
D. cat file\ 1
E. cat "file 1"
Answer: D,E

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NO.8 In Mac OS X v10.3, you CANNOT use the Finder's "Connect to Server" command to select
________.
A. your iDisk
B. SSH servers
C. WebDAV servers
D. AFP servers
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 4A0-105
Exam Name: Alcatel-Lucent Virtual Private LAN Services
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Exam Code: 4A0-M02
Exam Name: Alcatel-Lucent Mobile Gateways for the LTE Evolved Packet Core
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Exam Name: Alcatel-Lucent Multicast Protocols
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NO.1 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the EPS bearers?
A. The default bearer isinitiatedby either the UE or the PCRF.
B. The default bearer is always the first bearer established to an APN.
C. An AF server may initiate adedicatedbearer to a UE.
D. EPS bearers that connect a given UE to a single PGW may use different IP subnets.
E. The default bearer remains active throughout the lifetime of the APN connection.
Answer: A

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NO.2 There is an active GTP path between an Alcatel-Lucent SGW and an Alcatel-Lucent PGW, On the
SGW. Which of the following CLI commands is used to check the "Restart Count" value of the PGW?
A. show mobile-gateway serving ref-point-peers s5
B. show mobile-gateway serving ref-point-stats s5
C. show mobile-gateway serving bearer-stats s5
D. show mobile-gateway serving path-mgmt-stats s5
E. None of the above answers are correct.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following LTE interfaces are used for the communication of user data? (Choose one best
answer)
A. The S1-MME interface and the S11 interface.
B. The S1-U interface.
C. The S5 interface.
D. The S1-U interface, the S5 interface and the LTE-Uu interface.
E. Only answers A, B and C are correct.
F. Only answers B and C are correct.
Answer: D

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NO.4 A UE needs to get an IP address before it can communicate to any PDN over the LTE network. Which of
the following statements are FALSE regarding the process of the IP address allocation? (Choose two)
A. A PGW may obtain an IP address from a RADIUS server and assign it to the UE.
B. A PGW may assign the IP address from its local address pools.
C. An SGW may obtain a static IP address from the HSS server and assign it to the UE.
D. An SGW may obtain an IP address from a RADIUS server and assign it to the UE.
E. A PGW may obtain an IP address from a DHCP server and assign it to the UE.
Answer: C,D

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NO.5 In a 3G network, which of the following is used to build a PDP context between a UE and the GGSN
when a direct tunnel is not used?
A. An end-to-end GTP tunnel between the UE and the GGSN.
B. A Radio Access Bearer between the UE and the NodeB and a GTP tunnel between the NodeB and the
GGSN.
C. A Radio Access Bearer between the UE and the SGSN and a GTP tunnel between the SGSN and the
GGSN.
D. A Radio Access Bearer between the UE and the SGSN.
E. None of the above answers are correct.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the IP connectivity between a UE and a PDN?
A. A UE gets an IPv4 address and/or an IPv6 prefix per APN.
B. A PGW forwards the UE's IP packets to the PDN based on the address of the PDN server.
C. When a UE sends an IP packet to a PDN over the EPC core, the eNodeB forwards
theencapsulatedpacket to the SGW by looking into its IP routing table to determine how to reach the PDN
server.
D. The SGW forwards the UE's IP packets to the PGW based on the address of the PDN server.
E. Only answers C and D are correct.
F. Only answers A and B are correct.
Answer: F

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NO.7 Which of the following statements most accurately describes the Diameter protocol?
A. The Diameter is a peer-to-peer protocol that uses the TCP or SCTP as the transport protocol.
B. A Diameter peer could act as a Diameter client or a Diameter server to its remote peer.
C. The Alcatel-Lucent 7750 PGW acts as a Diameter client to the PCRF server via the Gx interface.
D. The Diameter protocol uses TCP and SCTP port number 3868.
E. All of the above answers are correct.
F. Only answers A and B are correct.
Answer: E

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NO.8 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the eNodeB?
A. The eNodeBs maybeinterconnectTEIDwith each other via anX2 interface.
B. The eNodeB is an element of the EPC core.
C. The eNodeBs areconnectedto the EPC core via the S1 interface.
D. During an IMSI attach, the eNodeB selects an MME to service the UE.
E. The eNodeB performs the compression and encryption of the user data stream.
Answer: B

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NO.1 Which two are accurate statements? (Choose two.)
A. NBX 100 supports 48 VTLs
B. NBX V5000 supports 48 VTLs
C. NBX V3000 supports 48 VTLs
D. NBX V5000 supports 72 VTLs
Answer: BC

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NO.2 Which two devices are not supported by an NBX Analog Terminal Card (ATC) or Analog Terminal
Adapter (ATA)? (Choose two.)
A. Modem
B. FAX machine
C. Cordless phone
D. Credit card reader
E. External bell or pager
F. Standard telephone that requires a DTMF connection
Answer: AD

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NO.3 Which four are features of the NBX QSIG Basic Service support? (Choose four.)
A. Recommended for use on a PSTN public network
B. Passes Caller ID information across QSIG tie lines
C. NBX system only functions in Slave Mode operation
D. Used to nest traditional PBX systems behind an NBX
E. Supports fractional QSIG on the NBX Digital Line Cards
F. Optimized for inter-PBX signaling, useful for implementing tie trunks
G. Connects 3rd party PBX systems with Master Mode support to an NBX system
Answer: BCFG

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NO.4 How does the NBX administrator load a local country Dial Plan, for example, Norway or Portugal?
A. Dial Plan / Tables/ User-Defined File ?select country and click Import
B. Dial Plan / Operations/ User-Defined File ?select country and click Import
C. Dial Plan / Tables/ Default File ?select country from drop-down menu and click Import
D. Dial Plan / Operations/ Default File ?select country from drop-down menu and click Import
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is the easiest way for the NBX system administrator to set up calling permissions and/or
restrictions for a group of users?
A. Define a Type of Service (ToS) and then assign the ToS to each user
B. Define a Class of Service (CoS) and then assign the CoS to each user
C. Define a User Configuration and then assign the Configuration to each user
D. Define a Type of Service (ToS), define a new group for the users and then assign the group to the new
ToS
E. Define a Class of Service (CoS), define a new group for the users and then assign the group to the new
CoS
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which four are features of the NBX Analog Line Card? (Choose four.)
A. An NBX V5000 chassis supports only one Analog Line card at a time
B. The NBX Auto Discover Line Cards function can be used to find newly installed Analog Line Cards
C. In Key System Mode, CO lines connected to an Analog Line Card can be mapped to one or more
telephones
D. Its Power Failure Jack provides access to the telephone CO in case of a NBX power failure
E. By default, when a port is mapped to multiple telephones, calls will ring at the lowest extension first,
then to the next extension, until the call is
Answered
F. In PBX System Mode, CO lines connected to an Analog Line Card are pooled and allocated by the Call
Processor for use by any phone for outbound calls
G. In Hybrid Mode, incoming calls go to an Auto Attendant only and CO lines are pooled and allocated by
the Call Processor for use by any phone on the system
Answer: BCDF

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NO.7 Which four Call Forward user settings are available to a user logged into NetSet on a NBX
Communication System? (Choose four.)
A. Forward calls to voicemail box
B. Forward calls to an e-mail inbox
C. Disconnect (no forwarding) calls
D. Forward calls to another phone number
E. Forward calls to an Automated Attendant
F. Do not ring, which places the caller into voice mail
G. Forward calls to the LCD Directory so the caller can contact another employee if they choose
Answer: ACDE

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NO.8 Which three office-to-office and/or office-to-remote user call options are supported by the NBX systems?
(Choose three.)
A. With a single NBX system at HQ, users can call to/from a remote office across the data network WAN
link using Layer 3 IP communications
B. With a NBX Network Call Processor (NCP) and NBX ConneXtions Gateways at each site, users can
call to/from the sites via a Virtual Tie Line (VTL)
C. With a single NBX system at HQ and pcXset on the remote office PC, the remote user can call to/from
HQ via any WAN link using TCP/IP Layer 4 communications
D. With a NBX Network Call Processor (NCP) at each location, users can call to/from the sites via a
Virtual Tie Line (VTL) using IP On-the-Fly or a Standard IP license
E. With a NBX system and NBX ConneXtions Gateways at each location, users can call to/from the sites
via a WAN link that supports IP protocol, for example, VPN, T1, E1 and Frame Relay
Answer: ADE

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NO.1 Many _____________________ are conducted in accordance with established Standards,
INTOSAI, or IFAC standards. The International Organization of Supreme Audit Institutions
______________________ promulgates standards for government organizations where as the
International Federation of Accountants _________________ provides additional guidance and
standards:
A. Government audits, (IFAC), (INTOSAI)
B. Government audits, (INTOSAI), (IFAC)
C. (IFAC), (INTOSAI), Government audits
D. (IFAC), Government audits, (INTOSAI)
Answer: B

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NO.2 A __________________________ letter is usually developed with either a qualified or
unqualified opinion. Obviously a qualified opinion will warrant significant remedial action by the
audit organization:
A. Opinion letter
B. Offer letter
C. Informal opinion letter
D. Formal opinion letter
Answer: D

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NO.3 Although not a generally accepted practice by most audit organizations, some may not
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some specific examples where standards may not be used EXCEPT:
A. An "assignment" may have an extremely short deadline, making it virtually impossible to comply
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B. The organization doesn't follow the audit standards.
C. Assignments that are strictly tied to compliance with contract terms, regulations, or grant
requirements.
D. The requesting body (legislature, for example) may not want standards to be applied to the
assignment.
Answer: B

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NO.4 The purpose of the external quality control review is to determine whether the organization's
internal quality control system is in place and operating effectively to provide reasonable assurance
that established policies and procedures and applicable auditing standards are being followed.
A. Quality control, Quantity control
B. Internal quality control system, External quality control
C. External quality control, Internal quality control system
D. Quantity control, Quantity control
Answer: C

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NO.5 The ____________ promulgates standards for government organizations. INTOSAI standards
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but which must be adopted and/or modified by the _________ of any specific country in order to be
used?
A. Supreme Audit Institution (SAI), International Organization of Supreme Audit Institutions
(INTOSAI)
B. International Organization of Supreme Audit Institutions (INTOSAI), International Standards for
the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing (ISPPIA)
C. International Organization of Supreme Audit Institutions (INTOSAI), Supreme Audit Institution
(SAI)
D. International Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing (ISPPIA), Supreme Audit
Institution (SAI)
Answer: C

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NO.6 _________Help define the role and responsibilities of auditors to internal and external entities.
Where as _______establish the basic principles and guidance to assist auditors in the performance
of their duties?
A. Technical standards, Standards
B. Standards, Defense standards
C. Audit standards, Standards
D. Standards, Open standards
Answer: C

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NO.7 Section _________ will detail some specific audit planning steps that are often utilized to
ensure that the appropriate legal and audit standards are applied in ___________:
A. Audit proposals, Audit engagements
B. Audit engagements, II.C.2 (Planning)
C. II.C.2 (Planning), Audit engagements
D. Audit engagements, Audit proposals
Answer: C

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NO.8 Audit standards were developed and are followed for all of the following reasons EXCEPT:
A. To provide uniform guidance to auditors and to establish a basis for conducting internal and
external reviews of quality audits.
B. To build credibility and confidence in the auditing profession.
C. To inform customers (the public, public officials, management, stockholders, etc.) about the role
ofauditing.
D. Audit staff qualifications and Quality control
Answer: D

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