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Exam Code: M2020-248
Exam Name: IBM Cognos Midmarket Foundational Sales Mastery Test v1
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NO.1 Which question will yield the best results when selling IBM Cognos Express to a director of
sales
or marketing?
A. What happens when you do not identify the early warning signs of bottlenecks orproblems?
B. What happens when management is not able to get information they need in a timely manner
for decision making or do not have the visibility they need across the multitude of business
systems?
C. When looking at your customers, are you able to determine which of them is likely to be the
most profitable, costly, or most satisfied so you can to be proactive in managing them?
D. How many people do you have creating and maintaining reports, and what is the annual cost
for supporting your reporting applications?
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which buying agenda is about turning data into accessible information and delivering the right
level to different users?
A. analysis
B. reporting
C. planning
D. intelligence
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which manager would it be most effective to ask, "Do you have a difficult time meeting the
needs
around information requests?" when proposing IBM Cognos Express?
A. accounting manager
B. sales manager
C. IT manager
D. customer service manager
Answer: C

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6. Which question will yield the best results when selling IBM Cognos Express to a director in
operations or manufacturing?
A. What happens when you do not identify the early warning signs of bottlenecks or problems?
B. What happens when managementnot able to get information they need in a timely manner
fordecision-makingor do not have the visibility they need across the multitude of business
systems?
C. When looking at your customers, are you able to determine which of them is likely to be the
most profitable, costly, or most satisfied so you can to be proactive in managing them?
D. How many people do you have creating and maintaining reports, and what is the annual cost
for supporting your reporting applications?
Answer: A

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7. Which statement is true about the ideal prospect for IBM Cognos Express?
A. They are less mature in their business intelligence processes.
B. They are a small company (<100 employees).
C. They are an existing Cognos customer
D. They require more than just the essential reporting, analysis, and planning capabilities.
Answer: A

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8. Which statement is true about midmarket companies?
A. They are less price sensitive
B. They have fewer IT constraints
C. They rely less on Microsoft Excel for their business intelligence strategies
D. They have closer alignment between their IT and business departments
Answer: B

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9. An organization currently uses silos of Microsoft Excel spreadsheets for their business analytics
processes. They want to enhance the way they use this information to make plans and budgets.
Which IBM Cognos Express module best meets their needs?
A. Reporter
B. Manager
C. Advisor
D. Xcelerator
Answer: D

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10. What are the 3 key pillars to the IBM Cognos Express value proposition?
A. Cognos Express is easy to install, easy to sell, and easy to buy.
B. Cognos Express is easy to purchase, easy to maintain, and easy to navigate.
C. Cognos Express is easy to install, easy to use, and easy to buy.
D. Cognos Express is easy to use, easy to understand, and easy to manage.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which statement is true about restrictions on IBM Cognos Express?
A. A customer may only purchase one IBM Cognos Express environment.
B. The maximum number of users is 50 per module, but no more than 100 in the environment.
C. IBM Cognos Express must be installed on a single Windows host.
D. A server hosting IBM Cognos Express may have a maximum of 64 cores.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which IBM Cognos Express module provides a Web-based tool for analysis?
A. Reporter
B. Manager
C. Advisor
D. Xcelerator
Answer: C

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Exam Code: A2090-550
Exam Name: Assessment: IBM solidDB and IBM solidDB Universal Cache
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NO.1 To execute the HotStandby administrative commands, which type of access privilege
would be
needed?
A. SYS_ADMIN_SYNC_ROLE
B. SYNC_ADMIN_ROLE
C. ADMIN_CONSOLE_ROLE
D. SYS_CONSOLE_ROLE
Answer: D

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NO.2 When setting the [HotStandby]SafenessLevel = Auto, which two statements are true
about
transaction durability and HotStandby safeness level? (Choose two.)
A. SafenessLevel switches to 1-safe when using [Logging]DurabilityLevel = 1(Relaxed).
B. SafenessLevel switches to 2-safe when using [Loggng]DurabilityLevel = 2(Adaptive).
C. SafenessLevel switches to 1-safe when using [Logging]DurabilityLevel = 3(Strict).
D. SafenessLevel switches to 2-safe when using [Logging]DurabiltyLevel = 4(Custom).
E. SafenessLevel switches to 1-safe when using [Logging]DurabiltyLevel = 2(Adaptive).
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 How many different installations of solidDB binaries can exist on the same host?
A. one
B. as many as can fit
C. one per release of solidDB
D. one per version of solidDB
Answer: B

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NO.4 You have setup solidDB Universal Cache such that you have a table DBA.ORG in the
solidDB
front-end, being mirrored to a back-end database. After some time, you notice that the
subscription is Inactive and you try to start Mirroring (Continuous). The subscription state
remains
Inactive and the Event Log shows that the structure of table DBA.ORG has changed. What is
the
recommended course of action?
A. In solidDB, drop the ORG table and recreate it; then restart the subscription.
B. In the backend database, drop the ORG table and recreate it; then restart the subscription.
C. In solidDB, change the table definition to what it was previously; then restart the
subscription.
D. In the Management Console, use the 'Update table definition' option, for the source in the
Table
Mappings area; then restart the subscription.
Answer: D

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NO.5 After completing the upgrade of the Primary server while performing a cold HSB-
incompatible
upgrade, what is the correct sequence of steps to upgrade to the Secondary server?
A. Upgrade both servers; start and verify that the upgraded Primary server is in a PRIMARY
ALONE state; start the Secondary server and verify that it is in a SECONDARY ACTIVE
state;
perform a 'hsb connect' command to resynchronize the servers and restore to normal
operation.
B. Upgrade both servers; start and verify that the upgrade Primary server is in a PRIMARY
ALONE state; start the Secondary server and verify that it is in a SECONDARY ACTIVE
state;
perform a 'hsb netcopy' command followed by 'hsb connect' to resynchronize the servers and
restore to normal operation.
C. Upgrade both servers; start and verify that the upgraded Primary server is in a PRIMARY
ACTIVE state; start the Secondary server and verify that it is in a SECONDARY ALONE
state;
perform a 'hsb connect' command to resynchronize the servers and restore to normal
operation.
D. Upgrade both servers; start and verify that the upgraded Primary server is in a PRIMARY
ALONE state; start the Secondary server and verify that it is in a SECONDARY ALONE
state;
perform a 'hsb netcopy' command followed by 'hsb connect' to resynchronize the servers and
restore to normal operation.
Answer: D

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NO.6 What are two possible conflict resolution methods between solidDB and a back-end
database?
(Choose two.)
A. Source wins
B. Reference
C. Trigger
D. UserExit
E. Alert user
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 Which two are directly visible in solidDB server-side SQL Tracing? (Choose two.)
A. longest lasting statements in duration order
B. timestamps of statement preparation
C. timestamps of individual fetch operations
D. timestamps of individual rpc_session operations.
E. list of statements currently under execution
Answer: B,C

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NO.8 Which statement regarding IBM solidDB Netbackup is true?
A. One IBM solidDB Netbackup Server can only serve one backup source server.
B. The command ADMIN COMMAND 'netbackup' is supported within the [Srv]At
configuration
parameter.
C. NetBackup copies logical database consisting of multiple files to one flat file to the
NetBackupDirectory by default.
D. If the specified remote directory does not exist, it is not created automatically by the
solidDB
Netbackup Server.
Answer: C

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NO.1 When LLDP is enabled, which value is presented by default as the LLDP Chassis ID on both
ProVision and Comware switches?
A. Router ID
B. System Name
C. IP address
D. MAC address
Answer: D

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Explanation:
<Sysname> display lldp local-information
Global LLDP local-information: Chassis ID : 00e0-fc00-5600 System name : Sysname System
description : H3C Comware Software. H3C S12508 Product Version S12500-C
MW710-B01BBIT25. Copyright (c) 2004-2011 Hangzhou H3C Tec
h. Co., Ltd. All rights reserved. System capabilities supported : Bridge, Router System capabilities
enabled : Bridge, Router
MED information: Device class : Connectivity device MED inventory information of master board:
HardwareRev : REV.A FirmwareRev : 109 SoftwareRev : 5.20 Alpha 2101 SerialNum : NONE
Manufacturer name : H3C Model name : H3C Comware Asset tracking identifier : Unknown
Table 1 Command output Field Description Global LLDP local-information Global LLDP information
to be sent. Chassis ID Bridge MAC address of the device.
Reference:
http://www.h3c.com/portal/Technical_Support___Documents/Technical_Documents/Switch
es/H3C_S12500_Series_Switches/Command/Command/H3C_S12500_CR-Release71286W710/ 04 / 20
1301 /772500_1285_0.htm
4. Refer to the exhibit. Exhibit: Network topology
The server shown in the exhibit is configured for dynamic LACP . There is only one link between
Switch 1 and Switch 2. Which HP switching solution should the network administrator implement?
A. Distributed trunking on Comware Switches or ProVision switches
B. IRF on Comware switches or Provision switches
C. IRF on Comware switches or but not on ProVision switches
D. Distributed trunking on ProVision switches but not on Comware switches
Answer: C

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5. Which open standard allows a switch with PoE support to correctly determine the power
requirements of a connected device?
A. ICMP
B. AutoPower
C. LLDP-MED
D. CDP
Answer: C

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Explanation:
The Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP) is a vendor-neutral link layer protocol in the Internet
Protocol Suite used by network devices for advertising their identity, capabilities, and neighbors on
an IEEE 802 local area network, principally wired Ethernet. Media Endpoint Discovery is an
enhancement of LLDP , known as LLDP-MED, that provides the following facilities:
- Auto-discovery of LAN policies (such as VLAN, Layer 2 Priority and Differentiated services settings)
enabling plug and play networking. - Device location discovery to allow creation of location
databases and, in the case of Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP), Enhanced 911 services. - Extended
and automated power management of Power over Ethernet (PoE) end points.
6. Which HP solution delivers automated virtual machine orchestrator, automatic
synchronization of network connectivity information, and visibility to performance of wired and
wireless users?
A. Unified Wired-WLAN modules and switches
B. Intelligent Management Center (IMC)
C. Virtual Connect FlexFabric
D. Intelligent Resilient Framework
Answer: B

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Reference: http://h17007.www1.hp.com/docs/mark/ 4AA3-4496ENW.pdf
7. Which HP Intelligent Management Center (IMC) component would a network administrator
check to verify the installation of IMC or an add-on module?
A. Deployment Monitoring Agent
B. Deployment Analyzer
C. Service Manager
D. Process Manager
Answer: A

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8. Which HP Comware component allows a network administrator to adjust the logging process?
A. SNMP management center
B. Information center
C. Logging process
D. System logging center
Answer: B

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Acting as the system information hub, information center classifies and manages system
information, offering a powerful support for network administrators and developers in
monitoring network performance and diagnosing network problems.
The following describes the working process of information center:
- Receives the log, trap, and debugging information generated by each module. - Outputs the above
information to different information channels according to the user-defined output rules. - Outputs
the information to different destinations based on the information channel-to-destination
associations.
9. Two OSPF routers are on a segment, and both of their interfaces become active. What is the
initial OSPF state after an adjacency has formed?
A. Established
B. Exstart
C. Two-way
D. Full
Answer: B

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10. What does an IP host learn from an ARP reply?
A. An IP address
B. The local subnet
C. A MAC address
D. A Netbios name
Answer: C

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NO.2 A network administrator executes these commands on an HP Comware switch:
[Comware] super password level 1 simple hp1 [Comware] super password level 2 simple hp2
[Comware] super password level 3 simple hp3 [Comware] quit <Comware>
The network administrator then executes this command to test the configuration: <Comware>
super 0
What is the outcome of the configuration?
A. The network administrator is immediately placed into Monitor view.
B. Access is denied because no level 0 password has been defined.
C. A password of hp0 must be entered to access the view.
D. The network administrator is immediately placed into visitor view.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which command can a network administrator execute to manage configuration files on an HP
Comware switch?
A. Write file
B. Startup-default
C. Delete
D. Write memory
Answer: C

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NO.1 Which features are offered in the HP StoreOnce 4900 and 6500 Backup systems? (Select two.)
A. active health logs in support tickets
B. high density storage units
C. Open Systems storage integration
D. 42U l-rack with intelligent rack position system
E. 512GB Smart memory (32 x 16GB)
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 You are describing the tailback process on an HP StoreOnce 6500 Backup system to the
customer. Which statement is correct?
A. It is initiated across couplets.
B. It is a Service Set entity.
C. It is a manual process.
D. It is an automated process initiated by the cluster heartbeat.
Answer: B

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NO.3 How do you perform a tailback of a service set running on node two after you fix hardware
issues on an HP StoreOnce Multi-node system?
A. Execute

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NO.1 Which main activity occurs within all Management processes?
A. administrating
B. checking
C. operation
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which activity belongs to the process Specify information requirements?
A. defining the global impact of a suggested change to the information provisioning
B. defining the impact of the suggested IT solution on the end user organization
C. defining how the IT solution interacts with the non-automated processes
Answer: B

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NO.3 In which process is an implementation plan made?
A. Planning and resource management
B. Prepare transition
C. Design non-automated information systems
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which monitoring activity belongs to Business data management?
A. monitoring of the integrity of customer data
B. monitoring whether the acceptance test data are correct
C. monitoring the accuracy of reports provided by the IT service provider
Answer: A

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NO.5 A marketing campaign has been planned by the sales and marketing department of the end
user organization. Sales and marketing expects that the number of customers in the customer
database will increase by 35%. Which process should act on this information?
A. Operational supplier management
B. Transition
C. Change management
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which responsibility belongs to the process Demand management?
A. determining the necessary capacity for change
B. periodic consultation of the end users
C. identification of information requirements within the business process
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which process produces an end user training for a new release of an application?
A. Transition
B. Prepare transition
C. Design non-automated information systems
Answer: B

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NO.8 What kind of commitment describes the situation where an IT provider takes on the
responsibility to realize a complete solution for the customer?
A. financial commitment
B. obligation to undertake efforts
C. delivery commitment
Answer: B

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NO.1 The following three elements make up Professional Credibility:
A. Content Credibility Personal Credibility
B. Social Credibility
C. Technical Credibility
D. Field Experience Credibility
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 You are delivering a lecture to a new group of learners. At different points in the lecture
students have problems understanding the new concepts. Select two techniques below that you can
use to help them overcome their confusion:
A. Give additional examples about the concept.
B. Make minor re-sequencing of activities to meet learner's needs-
C. Restate the information you just gave about the concept.
Answer: A

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NO.3 As an instructor it is very important that you demonstrate excellent personal sell-esteem.
Select two ways of demonstrating this in class:(Select two)
A. Purchase the students pizza on the first day of class.
B. Allow for positive differences of opinion within the classroom.
C. Ask overhead questions.
D. Invite and be open to having students share experiences that may be different from the
instructors.
E. Ask directed questions.
Answer: C,D

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NO.4 During the ENSA program, you notice that one of the students in the class does not have the
prerequisites for the course.
Which of these actions is an appropriate method for you to do?
A. Modify the pace of the course so that the student can accommodate and learn the course
objectives effectively.
B. Ignore such students and continue the class.
C. Ask the student to cancel his admission and leave the classroom immediately.
D. Tell the student that you can assist the student, but without the basic knowledge requested for
the course it would be difficult for him/her to successfully complete the program.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following is NOT an assumption made when analyzing course materials and
learner information?
A. All important learner characteristics are available to the instructor in advance.
B. Different learners learn at different rates.
C. Different learners learn in different ways.
D. Learners come to a training situation knowing different things.
Answer: A

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6. The most important reason an instructor must establish and maintain credibility is:
A. Students are less likely to make personal attacks on the instructor.
B. Students rail not be open to learning course objectives if they do not fully accept the instructor
credibility.
C. Students need a role model.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: A2040-929
Exam Name: Assessment: IBM WebSphere Portal 8.0 Deployment and Administration Update
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Exam Code: C2010-591
Exam Name: Fundamentals of Applying Tivoli Service Delivery and Process Automation Solutions V3
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NO.1 Identify the false statement pertaining to log files generated during installation, maintenance,
and
operation of IBM WebSphere Portal:
A. ConfigTrace.log - Contains information that is generated each time a ConfigEngine task is
executed.This file is located inwp_profile_root/ConfigEngine/log directory.
B. trace.log - Used for Diagnostic Trace to log information related to the Collaborative Services.
This file is located inwp_profile_root/logs/WebSphere_Portal directory.
C. siteanalyzer.log - contains the the portal configuration service SiteAnalyzerLogService
information that determines the type of site analysis datathat the portal logs at run time. This file is
located in wp_profile_root/logs/WebSphere_Portal/sa directory.
D. SystemOut.log - Contains runtime information.
Answer: C

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NO.2 In order to view site analytics overlay reports, Harold needs at least the following access:
A. ADMINISTRATOR role on virtual resource OVERLAYREPORTS and ADMINISTRATOR role
for the resource he wants to view.
B. MANAGER role on virtual resource OVERLAYREPORTS and MANAGER role for the resource
he wants to view
C. SECURITY ADMINISTRATOR role on virtual resource OVERLAYREPORTS and SECURITY
ADMINISTRATOR role for the resource he wants toview.
D. USER role on virtual resource OVERLAYREPORTS and USER role for the resource he wants
to view.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which one of the following is true when using OpenID as an external identity provider?
A. Administrators are not allowed to change the list of external identity providers that users
canaccess.
B. To modify the list of accepted external identity providers, administrators can edit the
openid.servicenames property in the Resource
Environment Providers section in the IBM WebSphere Integrated Solutions console.
C. To modify the list of accepted external identity providers, administrators can edit the
openid.servicenames in the custom properties for thecom.ibm.portal.auth.OpenIDTAI trust
association interceptor.
D. To modify the list of accepted external identity providers, administrators need to edit the
openid.servicenames property in the wkplc.propertiesfile and then run the
enable-identityprovidertai
task.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: M2110-670
Exam Name: IBM SVP Primary Support Provider Mastery Test v1
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NO.1 Which of the following settings would allow 20 sorts with a maximum of 10MB each to
run
concurrently on a 64-bit instance?
A.Set the DB SHEAPTHRES to 50000 and the DB SORTHEAP to 2500.
B.Set the DBM SHEAPTHRES to 50000 and the DB SORTHEAP to 2500.
C.Set the DBM SHEAPTHRES to 50000 and the DBM SORTHEAP to 2500.
D.Set the DBM SHEAPTHRES_SHR to 50000 and the DBM SHEAPTHRES to 2500.
Correct:B

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NO.2 A DB2 application developer creates an SQL stored procedure. Inside the procedure,
a static
SQL statement reads data from a table called EMPLOYEE and a dynamic SQL statement
inserts
data into a table called PAYROLL. Assuming that the default pre-compile and bind options
are
used, what privileges would an application user need in order to successfully invoke the
stored
procedure?
A.EXECUTE privilege on the stored procedure
B.SELECT privilege on the EMPLOYEE table INSERT privilege on the PAYROLL table
C.EXECUTE privilege on the stored procedure INSERT privilege on the PAYROLL table
D.EXECUTE privilege on the stored procedure SELECT privilege on the EMPLOYEE table
Correct:C

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NO.3 When a table is altered and a column is added for secured access by Label Based
Access
Control (LBAC), what column type should be used?
A.DB2SECURITY
B.DB2LABELSECURITY
C.DB2SECURITYLABEL
D.DB2SECURITYDBLABEL
Correct:C

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NO.4 A DBA needs to set the DIAGLEVEL configuration parameter to 4 while users are
connected to
the database. How can this change be implemented in a way that has a minimum impact to
the
environment?
A.Quiesce the database and update the parameter.
B.Attach to the instance and update the parameter.
C.Connect to the database in a single user mode and update the parameter.
D.Attach to the instance, update the parameter, stop and restart the instance.
Correct:B

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NO.5 A database administrator has HADR enabled and wants to do a LOAD WITH COPY
NO option on
the primary server. What happens on the standby server?
A.The Load is replicated without problems.
B.The Load will stop with an appropriate error message.
C.The Load will be automatically converted to NONRECOVERABLE and the standby
database will be
marked bad.
D.The Load will be automatically converted to COPY YES if the directory or device specified
on the
primary server is accessible for the standby database.
Correct:C

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NO.6 What are the two security mechanisms that enable users to access DB2 data?
A.Authentication and Clearance
B.Authorization and Validation
C.Validation and Certification
D.Authentication and Authorization
Correct:D

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NO.7 Given the following situation: Table space ts1 with tables t1, t2, t3 Table space ts2 with
tables t4,
t5 Tables t1 and t4 have defined referential integrity on them (t1 is the parent, t4 is the child)
What
happens after restoring the table space ts1 and issuing the following command? db2
rollforward
db sample to 2006-06-16-14.21.56 and stop tablespace(ts1)
A.The roll forward is executed to the end of logs.
B.The roll forward is not executed and an error message is generated.
C.The roll forward is executed and table t4 is placed in set integrity pending state.
D.The roll forward is executed and tables t1 and t4 are placed in set integrity pending state.
Correct:C

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NO.8 As part of a high availability takeover strategy using HADR, the LOG INDEX BUILD
table
attribute for the APPLICANT table is set to OFF. What is the most likely effect of this change?
A.After failover, the APPLICANT table index may be rebuilt.
B.An attempt to create a unique index on the APPLICANT table will fail.
C.Index builds for the APPLICANT table on the primary system will take longer.
D.The LOGINDEXBUILD database configuration parameter overrides the table attribute.
Correct:A

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Exam Name: IBM FileNet P8 V5.1, Deployment Professional
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NO.1 If the following commands complete successfully for a single partition database: CREATE
DATABASE mydb; CREATE BUFFERPOOL mybp; Which statement is true?
A. Self tuning is enabled for the MYBP buffer pool.
B. The initial size for the MYBP buffer pool is zero pages.
C. The database has to be restarted before the MYBP buffer pool will become active.
D. The page size for the MYBP buffer pool can be changed using the ALTER BUFFERPOOL
statement.
Answer: A

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NO.2 The following query is executed frequently against the SALES table: SELECT sales_id,
sales_date, sales_person FROM sales; If data in the SALES_ID column is unique, which
statement will create an index for optimal query performance and ensure uniqueness of the
SALES_ID column?
A. CREATE INDEX sales_idx ON sales (sales_id, sales_date, sales_person)
B. CREATE UNIQUE INDEX sales_idx ON sales (sales_id, sales_date, sales_person)
C. CREATE INDEX sales_idx ON sales (sales_id) INCLUDE (sales_date, sales_person)
D. CREATE UNIQUE INDEX sales_idx ON sales (sales_id) INCLUDE (sales_date, sales_person)
Answer: D

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NO.3 On which two operating systems can DB2 pureScale run? (Choose two.)
A. AIX
B. Linux
C. HP-UX
D. Solaris
E. Windows
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 Which statement about SMS table spaces is correct?
A. The system catalog cannot be stored in an SMS table space.
B. Tables, large objects (LOBs), and indexes can each reside in separate SMS table spaces.
C. SMS table spaces are recommended when you have small tables that are not likely to grow
quickly.
D. Extents are more likely to be contiguous with SMS table spaces than they are with DMS table
spaces.
Answer: C

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NO.5 If the following statements are executed: CREATE STOGROUP sg_hot ON '/path1', '/path2',
'/path3'; CREATE STOGROUP sg_med ON '/path4', '/path5', '/path6'; CREATE TABLESPACE
tbsp1 USING STOGROUP sg_hot; What is the recommended way to move table space TBSP1
from storage group SG_HOT to storage group SG_MED?
A. Issue an ALTER TABLESPACE statement with the 'USING sg_med' option.
B. Issue an ALTER STOGROUP statement with the 'MOVE tbsp1 TO sg_med' option.
C. Perform a table space RESTORE operation with the 'USING STOGROUP sg_hot' option.
D. Use the ADMIN_MOVE_TABLESPACE procedure to move table space TBSP1 to SG_HOT.
Answer: A

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NO.6 A DB2 9 database named MYDB that does not use automatic storage was migrated to DB2
10.1.
When will a default storage group be defined for this database?
A. The first time the database is accessed after the migration.
B. The first time the CREATE STOGROUP statement is executed.
C. When the ALTER DATABASE mydb CONVERT statement is used to convert the database to
an automatic storage database.
D. When the ALTER TABLESPACE statement is used to convert the table space that holds the
system catalog for the database to automatic storage.
Answer: B

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NO.1 In IBM SmartCloud Control Desk V7.5, which two calendar types are available to be used with
Service Level Agreements in the Service Level Agreement application? (Choose two.)
A. Time Calendar
B. Custom Calendar
C. Frequency Calendar
D. Applies To Calendar
E. Calculation Calendar
Answer: D,E

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NO.2 If a response plan is applied to an existing work order, which two fields will be overwritten on
the work order by the response plan if defined? (Choose two.)
A. Priority
B. Vendor
C. Customer
D. Owner Group
E. Service Group
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 What is the purpose of selecting the Known Error check box?
A. It copies the problem summary and details to a new Bulletin Board Message for all users to see.
B. It enables the New Row button on the Related Records tab so additional records can be linked to
the problem.
C. It adds the problem to the collection of known errors that service desk agents use to provide
quick resolution to related problems.
D. It removes the current problem from the list being worked by a problem analyst because it is
already being worked with another record.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What are two methods to place a new Service Request (SR) under a Service Level Agreement
(SLAy? (Choose two.)
A. The SLA is applied with an action within a workflow.
B. Click the Apply SLA action from the Select Action menu.
C. A ticket template includes a SLAt0 be applied to the SR.
D. A SLA is defined as part of the classification used on the SR.
E. The self-service user selects a valid SLA when creating a new SR.
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 In IBM SmartCloud Control Desk V7.5, which statement is true about escalation activation for
a specific Service Level Agreement (SLA)?
A. An escalation can be activated if its validation fails.
B. When the status of a SLA is changed, the associated escalation changes status automatically.
C. When the Activate/Deactivate Escalation action is used to activate the escalation, the associated
SLA changes status.
D. When an escalation is created for an active SLA, the Activate/Deactivate Escalation action must
be used to activate the escalation.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Under what circumstance should an incident be made global by checking the Global Incident
check box?
A. when an incident is related to a problem
B. when the Affected By person is a Very Important Person
C. when an incident affects many users or causes other issues
D. when an incident needs to be managed by teams in different countries
Answer: C

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NO.7 The Weight field is used in the calculation of which option when working with questions for
surveys?
A. survey reports
B. user responses
C. question ratings
D. ordering the questions in a survey
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which Key Performance Indicator is included with the Service Catalog content?
A. Catalog Orders in Approval
B. Service Catalog Waiting for Approval
C. Catalog Orders in Waiting for Approval
D. Service Catalog Service Requests Waiting for Approval
Answer: D

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Exam Code: C4090-453
Exam Name: IBM System Storage DS8000 Technical Solutions V3
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NO.1 A customer has recently decommissioned their DS8700 wants to use the same data center
floor
space for a new D38 870.
What is an important fact for the technical specialist to discuss with the customer as it relates to
data center requirements?
A. The DS8870 uses more power than the DS8700 so more power cords will need to be ordered.
B. The DS8870 uses a different power connector than the D68700 so new cords will need to be
supplied.
C. Air circulation in the DS8870 has changed and flows back to front so cooling vent locations will
need to be adjusted.
D. The rack dimensions on the DS8870 are larger than the D38700 so more floor space will be
needed.
Answer: B

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NO.2 A customer has an existing D68800 which is installed in their data center. It now must have an
extra frame added to support additional capacity growth, but there is no room to fit the expansion
frame to the right.
Which option should be taken?
A. Fit the expansion frame to the left of the base frame
B. Configure the expansion frame with the DS8000 Passthrough feature to allow placement of the
frame anywhere
C. Disruptively relocate the D68800 to make space to the right of the base frame for the expansion
frame
D. Create an MES to replace all of the existing capacity with larger drives which support both the
existing workload and the planned increase
Answer: C

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NO.3 A customer’s IT department has had problems meeting their backup window. They now
mandate
that a fast backup process be in place before an application is deployed. They have a DS8000 as
their disk subsystem and a TS3500 tape library for backups.
What is the simplest and most effective option to satis1i this requirement?
A. Implement TS1 140 drives
B. ImplementFlashCopy
C. Install Solid state Drives
D. Increase cache size
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following items would suggest that the use of space efficient FlashCopy for the
Global Mirror secondary volume could present an issue?
A. The customer is using Tivoli Storage Productivity Center for Replication to manage Global
Mirror
B. The workload has a large amount of heavy sequential write activity
C. There is a long distance between the primary and secondary sites
D. There are multiple primary disk subsystems in the Global Mirror session
Answer: B

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NO.5 A new D58000 mixed mainframe and open storage customer would like to connect older open
(2
Gbps) and mainframe servers (4 Gbps) to the DS8000 system’s 8 Gbps host adapters.
How can this be done?
A. through the GUI, adjust the required FOP ports for open to 2 Gbps and the FIOON ports for
mainframe to 4 Gbps link speed
B. the DS8OIJO supports 4 Gbps for mainframe connection; the 2 Gbps open systems connection
must be connected via an intermediate SAN
C. the customer needs to change the server’s HBA5 to an 8 Gbps link speed type
D. the D58000 8 Gbps Host Adapter ports auto-negotiate to 4 Gbps and 2 Gbps link speed
Answer: D

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NO.6 On the DS8870, which of the following drive options is a valid Easy Tier hybrid pool?
A. SLO and eMLO SSDs
B. eMLO SSDs and 5,400 RPM drives
C. 7,200 RPM drives
D. 15,000 RPM and 7,200 RPM drives
Answer: D

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NO.7 When configuring LUNs for IBM i which is not using VIOS, which of the following is true?
A. LUNs have 512 byte sectors and must match the size of internal drives.
B. LUNs have 520 byte sectors and must match the size of internal drives.
C. LUNs have 512 byte sectors and are limited to 2 TB.
D. LUNs have 520 byte sectors and are limited to 2 TB.
Answer: B

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NO.8 The output of what tool is used as input to Disk Magic to most accurately model a Windows
host
that will be used with an IBM D38000?
A. Jetstress
B. Perimon
C. IOSTAT
D. NMON
Answer: B

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NO.1 Which is NOT true about Labelling schemes?
A. Labeling schemes determine how the label that identifies and represents a record is derived
from the fields in the record
B. You can also include 'free text' in the label. This is text that does not vary between labels.
C. There are two separate label definitions in a labeling scheme; one for the label to be used
within iBase, and one to be used when a record is added to an Analyst's Notebook chart.
D. You can only create one Labeling Scheme per database
Answer: D

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NO.2 To enable more verbose logging about the install process than the system event log provides,
you
must add a value to a key in the registry. The key in question is
HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Policies\Microsoft\Windows\Installer, The new addition is
a string value named Logging, with the value _________________.
A. Verbose log
B. Voicewarmup
C. i2 log
D. error
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following best describes which database actions are logged by the audit viewer
database log
A. user requested database actions from IBM i2 iBase Designer
B. user requested database actions from IBM i2 iBase
C. user requested database actions from IBM i2 Analyst's Notebook
D. user requested database actions from Data Miner
E. user requested database actions from third party mapping applications
F. The log records all requested database actions regardless of origin
G. Only A,and B
Answer: F

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NO.4 Which of the following is NOT true for creating iBase SQL server databases?
A. The name you choose for the database (idb) file in iBase will be used to generate the names of
the SQL Server databases.
B. The iBase database name (in SQL server) always contains an underscore ( _ )
C. The Audit Log database is the database name with _log added at the end
D. The name of the iBase database must all be uppercase/Capital letters
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which is not correct when using the Index Service Configuration tool?
A. you will require An SQL Server installation on the machine on which you want to create the
iBase index database.
B. the index tool can connect to any SQL instance that is not on the local machine.
C. Running the Index Service Configuration tool for the first time will create a separate iBase index
database
D. The search 360 database index default name is IBaseIndexDB
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following false statement about iBase Designer?
A. iBase designer allows you to add, modify and delete entity record data.
B. iBase designer allows you to design databases
C. iBase designer allows you to create new databases
D. iBase designer allows you to administer the database
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following iBase security features is not supported by iBase Scheduler, and any
restrictions imposed by this features will be ignored in iBase Scheduler:
A. System Command Access Control
B. Database Management Groups
C. Data Access Control groups
D. Folder object control
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which file extension does an iBase security file or iBase security connection file for SQL Server
have?
A. .idc
B. .ids
C. .idq
D. .ida
Answer: B

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