2014年1月31日星期五

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Exam Code: 9A0-182
Exam Name: Adobe (Flex 4.5 ACE Exam )
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Total Q&A: 96 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 Give the ActionScript class:
public class MyClass implements IResizable { }
What can be said about MyClass?
A. MyClass inherits all the functionality of the IResizable class
B. MyClass is the super class of the IResizable class
C. IResizable is the super class of MyClass
D. MyClass must have all methods defined in IResizable
Answer: D

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NO.2 You have created a Flex application that contains a custom component with the id of myComp The
Application class needs to be altered whenever a property named score is updated inside myComp.
Which approach should be used to implement this functionality while encapsulation?
A. myComp would dispatch a custom event when score is changed
B. The Application anon class would bind to the score property in myComp
C. The Application class would add an event listener to the control updating score in myComp
D. The score property would be changed to a public property
Answer: A

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NO.3 You are creating a custom component, MyComp based on the UIComponent class. What statement
correctly declares the MyComp class.?
A. Public class MyComp extend UIComponent 0
B. Public class MyComp implements UIComponent 0
C. Public class UIComponent as MyComp 0
D. Public class MyComp base UIComponent
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which annotation is used in an ActionScript class to map it to a corresponding Java class
A. [RemoteObject]
B. [Bindable]
C. [RemoteClass]
D. [ClassMap]
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which statement describes ArrayList and ArrayCollection components?
A. Both ArrayList and ArrayCollection can be used as data providers for Spark list-based controls
B. ArrayList collection are sortable and filterable
C. When using an Array as a data provider for a Spark list-based control, it will automatically be wrapped
within ArrayList
D. ArrayList supports cursors, unlike ArrayCollection
Answer: A

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NO.6 Given the following code:
user firstName = "Bruno";
Which declaration would enable you to set the firstName property as shown?
A. public functionsetFirstName (value String):void{}
B. public function getFirstName{}: String{}
C. public function get firstName():void{}
D. public function set firstName(value String):void{}
Answer: D

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NO.7 When design pattern is used to define the passing of typed data between the client and remote server?
A. Mediator
B. Factory
C. Fa ade
D. Data transfer Object
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which statement describes the access rules for a variable marked as private?
A. Any class
B. Any class that extends the class
C. The class itself
D. Other classes in the same package
Answer: C

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NO.9 Given the following snippet var ac ArrayCollection = new ArrayCollection().
ac.addItem(0).
ac addItem(1).
ac addItem(2).
ac.addItem(3).
acaddItemAt(2.l).
var kuint = ac[1]
What is the value of k?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: B

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NO.10 What is the return type of the E4X statement: imageData.image
A. XML
B. XMLList
C. String
D. Array
Answer: A

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NO.1 What is true about conversion functionality?
A. Transactional or data functions provided to convert data and /or provide other user specified
conversion requirements
B. Exists only during the development or enhancement of an application
C. Conversion functionality is outside the scope of FP counting
D. Both A and B
Answer: D

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NO.2 Control information is defined as data that:
A. defines an elementary process of the application being counted
B. influences an elementary process of the application being counted
C. controls an elementary process of the application being counted
D. does not influence an elementary process of the application being counted
Answer: B

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NO.3 The primary intent of an EI is to maintain:
A. One or more ILFs or alter the behavior of the application
B. One or more ILFs
C. One or more EIFs or alter the behavior of the application
D. One or more EIFs
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which category (ies) of data entities is (are) usually identified to satisfy the Functional User
Requirements?
A. Business data
B. Reference data
C. Code data
D. Both A and B
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding an application functional size (FS)?
A. It provides a measure of the functionalities that an application provides to the user
B. It is never updated after the initial application installation
C. It is associated with an application's lifecycle
D. Both A and C
Answer: D

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NO.6 An EI is defined as:
A. an elementary process that processes data sent from outside the application boundary
B. control information sent from outside the user view
C. an elementary process that processes data or control information sent from outside the application's
boundary
D. All of the above
Answer: C

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NO.7 An application FP count is defined as:
A. a measure of the current functions the application provides the user
B. the initial development project FP count
C. an enhancement project that alters the applications functions
D. the activity of applying this International Standard to measure the functional size of an application
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following is NOT true of a boundary?
A. It encloses the logical data maintained by the application
B. It is the physical interface between the software under study and its users
C. It is dependent on the user's external business view of the application and is independent of technical
and/or implementation considerations
D. It defines what is external to the application
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following statements about an External Input is true?
A. Has the primary intent to maintain one or more ILFs
B. An elementary process to hold data or control information from outside the boundary
C. Has the primary intent to alter the behavior of a transaction
D. Has the primary intent to reference one or more EIFs
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is a user identifiable group of logically related data or control information referenced by the
application, but maintained within the boundary of another application?
A. An ILF
B. An IIF
C. An EIF
D. An ELF
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which of the following is an attribute used to represent relationships of one entity to another.?
A. Primary key
B. Secondary key
C. Foreign key
D. Domestic key
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following defines the purpose of a count?
A. Provides an answer to a business question, and it is the business question that determines the
purpose
B. Influences the positioning of the application between the software under review and the surrounding
software
C. Influences the type of FP count to answer the business problem under investigation
D. Provides an input to the estimation process needed to determine the level of effort required to develop
the first release of an application
Answer: A

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NO.13 What is a (are) valid example(s) of code data?
A. Substitution data
B. Static data
C. Valid values
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which of the following is NOT an example of the purpose of a function point count?
A. To enable comparison of functionality delivered by two applications
B. To determine maintenance support cost per function point
C. To understand the percentage of lines of code that is being reused across three different applications
D. To determine the effort and duration of a development project
Answer: C

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NO.15 When counting DETs which of the following rules apply?
A. Count a DET for each recursive field on the ILF or EIF
B. Count a DET for each piece of data in an ILF or EIF required by the user to establish a relationship with
another ILF or EIF
C. Count a DET for each repeating field that is identical in format
D. Count a DET for each field that appears more than once in an ILF or EIF
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which of the following statements regarding functional size measurement is true?
A. Early functional size measurements can never change during design and coding phase
B. It is quite normal to identify additional functionality that was not specified in the original requirements in
the form of scope creep
C. It is not necessary to update the application functional size upon completion of an enhancement.
D. Both B and C
Answer: B

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NO.17 "Requirements specifically requested by the user to complete an elementary process" defines which of
the following terms?
A. Control information
B. Processing logic
C. Maintain
D. User identifiable
Answer: B

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NO.18 An example of the purpose of an FP count is to provide:
A. input to the estimation process needed to determine the level of effort to develop the first release of an
application
B. a comparison of functionality delivered by two different suppliers' packages
C. determine the size of an application as part of the organization's effort to determine the size of its
software portfolio
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.19 What is an elementary process?
A. The smallest unit of activity that is meaningful to the developer
B. The largest unit of activity that is meaningful to the user
C. The smallest unit of activity that is meaningful to the user
D. The largest unit of activity that is meaningful to the developer
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which of the following statements regarding the counting scope is true?
A. It defines the set of Functional User Requirements to be included in the FP count
B. It always includes more than one application
C. It determines the purpose of the applications being counted
D. It defines a (sub) set of the modules being sized
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 010-111
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Total Q&A: 346 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 .Running is a locomotor activity similar to walking but with some differences. In comparison to
walking, running requires greater
A. Balance.
B. Muscle strength.
C. Range of motion.
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.2 .Which of the following is the ability of a force to cause rotation of a lever?
A. Center of gravity.
B. Base of support.
C. Torque.
D. Stability.
Answer: C

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NO.3 .The most common site used for measurement of the pulse during exercise is the
A. Popliteal.
B. Femoral.
C. Radial.
D. Dorsalis pedis.
Answer: C

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NO.4 The C-shaped cartilages of the trachea allow all of the following to occur EXCEPT
A. Ciliated movement of mucus-secreting cells.
B. Distention of the esophagus.
C. Maintenance of open airway.
D. Prevention of tracheal collapse during pres- sure changes.
Answer: A

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NO.5 .An abnormal curve of the spine with lateral deviation of the vertebral column is called
A. Lordosis.
B. Scoliosis.
C. Kyphosis.
D. Primary curve.
Answer: B

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NO.6 .Blood from the peripheral anatomy flows to the heart through the superior and inferior venae
cavae into the
A. Right atrium.
B. Left atrium.
C. Right ventricle.
D. Left ventricle.
Answer: A

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NO.7 .Which of the following is considered to be a "balland-socket" joint?
A. Ankle.
B. Elbow.
C. Knee.
D. Hip.
Answer: D

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NO.8 .A standard site for the measurement of circumfer- ences is the
A. Abdomen.
B. Neck.
C. Wrist.
D. Ankle.
Answer: A

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NO.9 .Blood leaving the heart to be oxygenated in the lungs must first pass through the right atrium and
ventricle. Through which valve does blood flow when moving from the right atrium to the right
ventricle?
A. Bicuspid valve.
B. Tricuspid valve.
C. Pulmonic valve.
D. Aortic valve.
Answer: B

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NO.10 .A client in your exercise class has been complaining of back pain with no ridiculer symptoms. This
person has been treated medically and is now joining the exercise program to improve flexibility in
the low back. Which exercise would be most appropriate for this person to address the stated
goal?
A. Hip flexor stretch.
B. Knee-to-chest stretch.
C. Gastrocnemius stretch.
D. Lateral trunk stretch.
Answer: B

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NO.11 .In the organization of skeletal muscle, the muscle cell contains the contractile proteins. Which of
the following is a contractile protein?
A. Myosin.
B. Muscle fascicle.
C. Myofibril.
D. Muscle fiber.
Answer: A

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NO.12 .Functions of bone include all of the following EXCEPT
A. Support for the body.
B. Protection of organs and tissues.
C. Production of red blood cells.
D. Production of force.
Answer: D

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NO.13 .Cartilage is categorized as which of the following types of connective tissue?
A. Loose.
B. Dense.
C. Fluid.
D. Supporting.
Answer: D

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NO.14 .Standard sites for the measurement of skinfolds include the
A. Medial thigh.
B. Biceps.
C. Infrailiac.
D. Forearm.
Answer: B

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NO.15 .All of the following statements are true regarding long bones EXCEPT
A. Thediaphysis is composed of compact bone.
B. The epiphysis consists of spongy bone.
C. Most bones of the axial skeleton are of this type.
D. The central shaft encases themedullary canal.
Answer: C

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NO.16 .A baseball pitcher has been complaining of weakness in the lateral rotation motions of the
shoulder. You have been asked to evaluate him for a strengthening program. Which of the
following muscles would you have him concentrate on strengthening?
A. Subscapularis.
B. Teres major.
C. Latissimus dorsi.
D. Teres minor.
Answer: D

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NO.17 .The prime movers for extension of the knee are the
A. Bicepsfemoris.
B. Bicepsbrachii.
C. Quadricepsfemoris.
D. Gastrocnemius.
Answer: C

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NO.18 .Arteries are large-diameter vessels that carry blood away from the heart. As they course through
the body, they progressively decrease in size until they become
A. Arterioles.
B. Anastomoses.
C. Venules.
D. Veins.
Answer: A

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NO.19 .The arm is capable of performing all of the following motions EXCEPT
A. Flexion.
B. Abduction.
C. Inversion.
D. Supination.
Answer: C

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NO.20 .The law of inertia
A. States that a body at rest tends to remain at rest, whereas a body in motion tends to continue to
stay in motion with consistent speed and in the same direction unless acted on by an outside force
B. States that the velocity of a body is changed only when acted on by an additional force
C. States that the driving force of the body is doubled and that the rate of acceleration is also
doubled.
D. States that the production of any force will create another force that will be opposite and equal
to the first force.
Answer: A

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Total Q&A: 232 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 Typically, what might a vision statement identify for the Service Desk?
A. Short-term goals
B. Medium-term objectives
C. Long-term goals
D. Ongoing operational objectives
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of these options most closely represents the overall mission of the Service Desk?
A. to promote the use of self-help tools and drive down support costs
B. to provide high-quality and consistent user and technical support
C. to continually improve the quality of IT services
D. to present the best possible public image to customers and users
Answer: B

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NO.3 Your IT director has told you that your team must follow best practice. What is a major benefit of so
doing?
A. Customers and employees will feel more satisfied with the service provided by your team
B. Senior management meetings will not dwell on the failings of your team
C. The speed of resolution becomes the sole focus of everyones attention
D. Team members are less likely to be involved in cross-department projects
Answer: A

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NO.4 You are trying to promote the Service Desk through a variety of recognised and effective channels.
Which of these statements best describes a channel to use?
A. Articles in the local newspaper and Have a Go days
B. Open house days and distributing Service Desk fliers
C. Distributing free pens and Service Desk induction training
D. Induction training and team-building away days
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of these options is NOT an element of successful project management?
A. Managing costs
B. Ensuring a continual improvement focus
C. Developing technical solutions
D. Defining project objectives
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is the purpose of a Service Desk vision statement?
A. To assist staff in achieving their dream goals in their future careers
B. To help management see where the Service Desk is going strategically
C. To keep the Service Desk in the forefront of user minds
D. To ensure that all staff understand the vision and consistently work towards it
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of these options is the best way in which you can use formal or informal networks to help
develop your ideas?
A. Recommend holding off-site meetings in a local pub
B. Develop scenarios that will demonstrate how your suggestions and plans will raise everyones profiles
C. Hold meetings with stakeholders to obtain their support for your proposals
D. Hold meetings with your team to discuss aspects of your proposals
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following statements about Problem Management is correct?
A. The Service Desk is not responsible for Problem Management but contributes by identifying recurring
Incidents
B. The Service Desk is not responsible for Problem Management but manages Major Incident reviews
C. The Service Desk is responsible for Problem Management and may be required to work with technical
teams to diagnose Problems
D. The Service Desk is responsible for Problem Management and uses known errors to aid fast resolution
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of these options is NOT a responsibility of the Service Desk?
A. Developing and implementing Service Desk goals that integrate with business objectives
B. Representing the IT organisation to its users
C. Maintaining the highest level of productive IT time for users in accordance with the SLA
D. Providing the user with root cause analysis for Incidents resolved at first level
Answer: D

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NO.10 You intend to implement some far-reaching changes to the way in which your Service Desk currently
operates, but to do so you need the support of other teams within IT. Which action should you undertake
to gain this support?
A. Give a presentation to the board of directors to guarantee their support
B. Make time to develop a social relationship with your manager
C. Demonstrate your understanding of any concerns others may have
D. Begin by creating a powerfully-worded vision statement
Answer: C

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NO.11 The Service Desk has a strategic role to play within an organisation, which of these options best
describes a method you could use to ensure that you are able to develop clear, insightful strategies?
A. Understand and communicate how the Service Desk assists the organisation in meeting its team
objectives
B. Familiarise yourself with the goals and objectives of other organisations
C. A best practice demonstrates good governance, a formal standard demonstrates adherence
D. Network with people in other organisations and within the support industry and your communities
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which of these options is a primary objective of the Service Asset and Configuration Management
process?
A. To record the ownership of every item of hardware and software in the asset base
B. To ensure that IT services, assets, resources and processes are properly managed and maintained
C. To clearly identify the business dependencies of each inventory item
D. To map assets into a clear network infrastructure diagram
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which option is a clear objective of having a Service Desk mission statement?
A. To inform staff to follow procedures
B. To get IT resolver groups working to clear OLAs
C. To show IT management how the Service Desk is structured
D. To obtain commitment and buy-in to the Service Desk
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which of these options would be a typical feature of an On-going survey?
A. It is carried out on a six monthly cycle
B. It is executed as soon as possible after a call is closed
C. It is conducted with a minimum of 10 questions to be comprehensive
D. It is designed to show longer term trends in customer satisfaction
Answer: B

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NO.15 You need to get a project and its budget approved by your board, which of these options would be the
most appropriate action to take?
A. Ensure that all stakeholders are sent regular operational reports about the project
B. Organise a conference for board members to discuss the project in detail
C. Build a business-based project plan to present to senior management
D. Write a full report on your opinion of the project and those responsible
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which of these answers would NOT be a suitable area to include in your service ethics code of
conduct?
A. A list of expected behaviour to ensure that all Service Desk employees understand what the
organisation expects of them
B. Standards of moral and ethical behaviour
C. How to manage risk on behalf of the organisation
D. Specific techniques for dealing with difficult business partners
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which of these options would be a management activity in directing, controlling and co-ordinating
activities?
A. Providing guidance to staff when needed
B. Providing an efficient ergonomic office environment
C. Developing and documenting staff management procedures
D. Developing and implementing an effective IT platform
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which statement best describes some of the characteristics of a successful Service Desk?
A. Measurements are published when the KPIs have been met or exceeded: Service Improvement
Programmes are discussed
B. Satisfaction surveys for both staff and customers are considered superfluous: resource management
is reviewed annually
C. Leadership practices ensure that future direction is clearly laid out: policies are documented, regularly
reviewed and monitored
D. Benchmarking is pencilled in for the next financial cycle: Continual Service Improvement will be
discussed at that time
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which of these options would be a practical way to gain an understanding of other countries cultures?
A. Study the religion practised in the region surrounding the country
B. Take a course in international business or cross-cultural studies
C. Travel to several countries in the area of the country
D. Read travel books about the country
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which of the following is a business best practice quality model?
A. COBIT
B. SLM
C. ITIL
D. Six Sigma
Answer: D

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NO.21 Performing a skills gap analysis and identifying appropriate salary levels are preparatory requirements
for what?
A. Service Desk recruitment
B. Service Catalogue definition
C. Service Level Agreement negotiation
D. Skills Matrix creation
Answer: A

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NO.22 You have recently been promoted to Service Desk Manager and you are keen to show how much you
wish to succeed in this role. Which statement best describes some of the skills that will help you to
succeed?
A. Excellent influencing skills, exemplary debating and creative writing skills
B. A University Degree in Computer Sciences and strong negotiating skills
C. Strong team building skills, excellent people-management and communication skills
D. Time management skills excellent technical and analytical skills
Answer: C

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NO.23 You are explaining the role of the Service Desk to your new analysts. Which of these options best
describes one of the key requirements?
A. The Service Desks role is to provide a high-quality service promptly and consistently
B. The Service Desks role is to resolve users Problems and record all Change Requests
C. The Service Desks role is to initiate other support teams into the Standard Operating Procedures of the
Service Desk
D. The Service Desks role is to act as a single point of contact for all organisational enquiries
Answer: A

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NO.24 Which of these options best describes the value of adopting a resource-planning model?
A. It helps even out the handling of calls across the day or shift
B. It quantifies the staffing required to meet SLA and business needs
C. It provides a sound recruitment base for consistent staffing
D. It boosts staff retention
Answer: B

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NO.25 What is the value of telephone support in a Service Desk?
A. First contact resolution
B. Increased turnaround times
C. Reduced abandon rate
D. Skills-based routing
Answer: A

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NO.26 What is the key outcome of keeping commitments to users, team members and organisations?
A. It boosts credibility, trust and customer satisfaction
B. It boosts the teams importance and status
C. It enhances the problem-solving capability of the team
D. It demonstrates dedication to continued service improvement
Answer: A

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NO.27 Which of the following is a key objective of the IT Service Continuity Management (ITSCM) process?
A. To eliminate single points of contact for services
B. To eliminate single points of failure for services
C. To remove critical resources for services
D. To remove long term workarounds for services
Answer: B

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NO.28 If you choose to implement a formal standard rather than a best practice, which would be the best
description of the difference?
A. A best practice does not need evidence to prove progress, a formal standard does
B. A formal standard may not be ITIL compliant, a best practice would be
C. A best practice demonstrates good governance, a formal standard demonstrates adherence
D. Best practice does not include ISO/IEC 20000, a formal standard includes ITIL
Answer: A

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NO.29 Which option best describes the expectations of the Service Desk's users?
A. They have confidence that the Service Desk is in control of their Incident or Service Request when
speaking to a senior team member
B. Their incident is professionally managed and they receive consistent and courteous service
C. Their Incidents are resolved very quickly and they are periodically informed of progress
D. They are provided with good decision data and feedback on all their Incidents
Answer: B

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NO.30 Which of these options is NOT likely to be a role of the Service Desk?
A. To balance support expenses to keep IT support performing at the optimum levels of quality and cost
effectiveness
B. To integrate support goals with business goals
C. To provide individual and personal IT support to each business user
D. To report on service breaches and their reasons
Answer: C

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Exam Code: BCP-420
Exam Name: BlackBerry (Maintaining BlackBerry Enterprise Server/Microsoft Exchange)
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Total Q&A: 102 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 Which IT administration option could a system administrator use to remotely change the password on a
BlackBerry device user's BlackBerry device? (Choose one.)
A. Specify Activation Password
B. Clear Activation Password
C. Resend IT Policy to Device
D. Specify New Password and Lock Device
E. You can remotely set the BlackBerry password
Answer: B

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NO.2 All BlackBerry device users are reporting that email messages are delayed by 10-20 minutes to their
BlackBerry devices. Which three of the following should the system administrator check to resolve the
problem? (Choose three.)
A. That there is currently no maintenance being done on the Microsoft SQL Server that hosts the
BlackBerry Configuration Database
B. That there is currently no maintenance being done on any of the mail servers
C. How long it takes PIN messages to be delivered to users
D. Where the delay could be using the message receipt confirmation tool
E. Where the delay could be using the message flow tool
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.3 If the BlackBerry Enterprise Server is having a problem communicating with a BlackBerry device user
mailbox, which is the first BlackBerryIf the BlackBerry Enterprise Server is having a problem
communicating with a BlackBerry device user? mailbox, which is the first BlackBerry Enterprise Server
component the system administrator should focus on when troubleshooting the issue? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerryMailStore Service
B. BlackBerry Dispatcher Service
C. Microsoft Outlook
D. BlackBerry Messaging Agent
E. BlackBerry Router Service
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which three of the following tools from the BlackBerry Resource Kit can a system administrator use to
help diagnose an email message delay issue for one or more BlackBerry device users? (Choose three.)
A. BlackBerry Message Flow Reporting (Messageflow.exe)
B. Message Receipt Confirmation (Messageconfirmconfig.exe)
C. BlackBerry Thread Analyzer (NoResponsecheck.exe)
D. BlackBerry Usage Monitoring Tool (OutOfCoverage.exe)
E. BlackBerry Enterprise Activation Status Reporting (eastatus.exe)
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.5 If the BlackBerry Policy Service were stopped, what impact would this have on a BlackBerry device user
who is trying to perform a wireless enterprise activation? (Choose one.)
A. Email messaging would be activated, the calendar and all organizer data items would be synchronized
B. Email messaging would be activated, the calendar would be wirelessly synchronized, and policies
would be applied
C. The activation would not begin because the policy cannot be applied
D. Email messaging would be activated, the calendar would not be synchronized, and policies would not
be applied until the user connects their BlackBerry device to their computer
E. The activation would not have begun because the activation email message did not arrive in the user
inbox.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following default host and port combinations will a system administrator need to browse
to in order to configure the BlackBerry Monitoring Service? (Choose one.)
A. https://<servername>:8443/webconsole/app
B. https://<servername>/webconsole/app
C. http://<servername>/webconsole/app
D. http://<servername>:8080/webconsole/app
E. https://<servername>:7443/webconsole/app
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which port is used for BlackBerry WLAN as well as BlackBerry Serial Bypass? (Choose one.)
A. 3101
B. 3201
C. 3501
D. 4101
E. 4201
Answer: D

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NO.8 A BlackBerry device has gone missing. Assuming that the BlackBerry device radio is on, which two of
the following administrative actions can be carried out to ensure that none of the data can be read on the
BlackBerry device? (Choose two.)
A. Specify a new BlackBerry device and cancel the wireless service
B. Remove the BlackBerry device user account from the BlackBerry Administration Service Remove the
BlackBerry device user? account from the BlackBerry Administration Service
C. Remove the BlackBerry device association and lock the BlackBerry device
D. Disable and erase data from the BlackBerry device
E. Specify a new BlackBerry device password and lock the BlackBerry device
Answer: D,E

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NO.9 Which three of the following options are available in the BlackBerry Administration Service for enabling
high availability? (Choose three.)
A. Turn on Automatic Failover
B. Turn on Pooling
C. Turn on High Availability
D. Manual Failover
E. Turn on Automatic Connections Failover
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.10 If the BlackBerry Synchronization Service is stopped, what impact would this have on a BlackBerry
device user who is trying to perform a wireless enterprise activation? (Choose one.)
A. Email messaging would be activated, the calendar would wirelessly synchronize, and policies would be
applied to the BlackBerry device
B. Email messaging would be activated, policies would be applied to the BlackBerry device, and all
organizer data items would synchronize wirelessly
C. Policies would be applied however email messaging would not be activated
D. The user would not be able to begin the wireless activation unless the BlackBerry
Synchronization Service is started
E. Email messaging would be activated, policies would be applied to the BlackBerry device, and address
book items would be wirelessly synchronized
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which three of the following services should be set to start manually on the standby instance of a
BlackBerry Enterprise Server? (Choose three.)
A. BlackBerryMailStore Service
B. BlackBerry Synchronization Service
C. BlackBerry Policy Service
D. BlackBerry Router Service
E. BlackBerry Administration Service
F. BlackBerry Dispatcher Service
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.12 At which minimum level should a system administrator set a BlackBerry Enterprise Server service or
component log when investigating an issue? (Choose one.)
A. 1 - Error
B. 2 - Warning
C. 3 - Informational
D. 4 ?Debug
E. 5 ?Unknown
Answer: D

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NO.13 A BlackBerry device user reports that when trying to browse any website from the BlackBerry device,
the following error message is displayed: "HTTP 403, Forbidden." Which two of the following options
should be used when troubleshooting the error? (Choose two.)
A. Verify Push Access Control is allowed for the user and request the user clear the cache on the browser
B. Verify Pull Access Control and/or Proxy mappings are configured correctly
C. Review the BlackBerry MDS Connection Service (MDAT) logs to verify if more than one user is
affected and ensure the firewall/proxy is not blocking the user from browsing
D. Restart the BlackBerry MDS Connection Service and BlackBerry Policy Service and then have the
user try browsing again
E. Create a blank IT Policy and apply it to the user and then have the user try again
Answer: B,C

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NO.14 Which log file contains all the information regarding wireless calendar and mailbox application
interactions with the BlackBerry Enterprise Server? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerry Synchronization (SYNC)
B. BlackBerry Dispatcher (DISP)
C. BlackBerry Messaging Agent (MAGT)
D. Exchange Connector (CEXC)
E. BlackBerryMailStore Service (MAST)
Answer: C

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NO.15 After purchasing a used BlackBerry 6230 device, a BlackBerry device user reports that the BlackBerry
device does not display the option to begin the activation process after the system administrator has
configured the user for wireless enterprise activation. What should the system administrator do to resolve
this issue? (Choose one.)
A. Have the user perform a security wipe
B. Have the user delete and then restore the Desktop [SYNC] service book
C. BlackBerry 6230 devices cannot be wirelessly activated, the user will have to get a new
BlackBerry device
D. Verify that the BlackBerry device is running BlackBerry Device Software 4.0 or later
E. Integrate the email account on the BlackBerry Internet Service
Answer: D

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NO.16 Under which of the following conditions will an automatic failover from the active to the standby
instance of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server occur? (Choose one.)
A. All items above the failover threshold of the active instance of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server are
unhealthy and all items above the promotion threshold of the standby instance of the BlackBerry
Enterprise Server are unhealthy
B. All items above the failover threshold of the active instance of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server are
healthy and at least one item above the promotion threshold of the standby instance of the BlackBerry
Enterprise Server is unhealthy
C. All items above the promotion threshold of the active instance of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server are
healthy and at least one item above the failover threshold of the standby instance of the BlackBerry
Enterprise Server is unhealthy
D. At least one item above the promotion threshold of the active instance of the BlackBerry Enterprise
Server is unhealthy and all items above the failover threshold of the standby instance of the BlackBerry
Enterprise Server are healthy
E. At least one item above the failover threshold of the active instance of the BlackBerry
Enterprise Server is unhealthy and all items above the promotion threshold of the standby
instance of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server are healthy
Answer: E

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NO.17 The BlackBerry Monitoring Service can send notifications using which three of the following methods?
(Choose three.)
A. Phone (VoIP)
B. Email message
C. PIN message
D. SMS message
E. Instant Messaging
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.18 What could block an email message that has been delivered to the user mailbox from reaching the
BlackBerry device? (Choose one.)What could block an email message that has been delivered to the
user? mailbox from reaching the BlackBerry device? (Choose one.)
A. Reconciliation settings
B. SPAM blocker
C. Anti-virus quarantine
D. Email message filters
E. Synchronization settings
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which of the following is the first step that needs to be performed when attempting to assign a
BlackBerry device to an administrative user? (Choose one.)
A. Enable the user as a BlackBerry device user
B. Disable the user as an Administrative user
C. Select the messaging server and email address that should be associated to the Administrator account
D. Choose the BlackBerry PIN that should be assigned to the Administrator account
E. Choose the BlackBerry Enterprise Server that should be assigned to the Administrator account
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which two of the following options explain how active and standby instances of the BlackBerry
Enterprise Server are able to connect to the BlackBerry Infrastructure when both instances of the
BlackBerry Enterprise Server are running? (Choose two.)
A. The active instance of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server will initiate a tentative connection to the
BlackBerry Infrastructure.
B. The active and standby instances of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server will both establish a connection
to the BlackBerry Infrastructure.
C. The standby instance of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server will establish a connection to the BlackBerry
Infrastructure only when the active instance of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server has failed.
D. The standby instance of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server will initiate a tentative connection to the
BlackBerry Infrastructure.
E. The standby instance of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server relies on the active instance of the
BlackBerry Enterprise Server's connection to the BlackBerry Infrastructure.
Answer: B,D

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Exam Code: BCP-340
Exam Name: BlackBerry (Support. BB 10 Devices & BB Device Svc. in Enterprise Envir)
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Total Q&A: 100 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 Which option best describes how to add a user to a BlackBerry Device Service (BDS) domain?
A. Login to BlackBerry Administration Console and click on "create a user" enter the user's full name
in the "Directory Display Name" field and click on "create a user with activation password"
B. Login to BlackBerry Administration Console and click on "create a user", enter the user's full
name in the "Directory Display Name" field and click on "create a user without activation password"
C. Login to BlackBerry Administration Console and click on "create a user" enter the user's email
address in the "Email Address" field and click on "create a user with generating activation password"
D. Login to BlackBerry Administration Console and click on "create a user", enter the user's email
address in the "Email Address" field and click on "create a user without activation password"
Answer: D

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NO.2 If users wish to perform a wired activation, which browser(s) is/are supported?
A. Windows Internet Explorer 8.0 and 9.0 (32-bit)
B. Windows Internet Explorer 8.0 and 9.0 (32-bit) or Safari 5 for Mac or later
C. Windows Internet Explorer 8.0 and 9.0 (32-bit) or Mozilla Firefox 10 or later
D. Windows Internet Explorer 8.0 and 9.0 (32-bit) or Google Chrome 12 or later
Answer: A

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NO.3 A new user in the company would like to use BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager to activate
and manage their device. What is the first step?
A. Create a BlackBerry Enabled account for them on the server
B. Set a password for the user
C. Generate an Enterprise Activation password
D. Create a BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager password for the user
Answer: A

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NO.4 What administrative tasks can be performed using the BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager
Option?
A. Setup an enterprise activation password, specify a new password and lock a device and assign a
new device to a user account.
B. Setup an enterprise activation password, specify a new password and lock a device, delete all
device data and deactivate a device and assign a new device to a user account.
C. Setup an enterprise activation password, specify a new password and lock a device, delete all
device data and deactivate a device, assign a new device to a user account, send a PIN message to
the administrator.
D. Setup an enterprise activation password and assign a new device to a user account.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which three components are used to contact a device?
A. BlackBerry Router, BlackBerry Dispatcher, and BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager
B. BlackBerry Router, BlackBerry Management Web Service, and BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager
C. BlackBerry Dispatcher, BlackBerry Enterprise Management Web Service, and BlackBerry Web
Desktop Manager
D. BlackBerry Dispatcher, BlackBerry Administration Service, and BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager
Answer: C

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NO.6 When searching for users with a specific software configuration assigned, the following
message is displayed: "The BlackBerry Administration Service cannot find the records you were
looking for. Verify the search criteria you specified and try again." What is the MOST likely cause and
corrective action to take?
A. The search modules threw an exception; log out and try the search again.
B. The search resulted in no matches; make sure search terms are valid and try again if the result
was unexpected.
C. The search was not able to connect to the configuration database to submit the search; verify
connectivity to the database server and try again.
D. The search module did not understand the criteria; make sure search terms are valid and try
again.
Answer: B

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NO.7 The BlackBerry Administration Service does which of the following?
A. Provides a secure connection between the device and the server
B. Maintains a connection with the BlackBerry Infrastructure
C. Communicates commands, IT policies, and profiles to the device
D. Manages the user accounts and devices
Answer: D

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NO.8 A user requests an immediate password to activate a BlackBerry device but the user is not
found in the server by searching Administration Service, What should be done next?
A. Perform a quick user search to find the user
B. Add the user to the Activation Password group
C. Assign the Activation Password Software Configuration to the user
D. Create a BlackBerry enabled user with an activation password
Answer: D

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NO.9 What functions are available when a device has been enrolled under the BlackBerry Protect
program?
A. View Location, Play Sound, Display a Message, Lock Device, or Wipe Device
B. View Location, Play Sound, Display a Message, Lock Device, or change BBID password
C. View Location, Play Sound, Display a Message, Rename Device, or Lock Device
D. View Location, Play Sound, Display a Message, Lock Device, or change the device PIN
Answer: A

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NO.10 A device establishes connection against the BlackBerry environment by creating an
A. HTTP connection over Wi-Fi.
B. HTTP connection over Wi-Fi VPN, or IPPP .
C. SSL connection over Wi-Fi.
D. SSL connection over Wi-Fi, VPN, or IPPP .
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 1Z0-870
Exam Name: MYSQL (MySQL 5.0, 5.1 and 5.5 Certified Associate Exam)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 240 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 Which of the following will be true about a table column if you plan to create an index on that column?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. The column is often used in the WHERE clause of SQL statements.
B. The column contains very small number of NULL values.
C. The table is updated frequently.
D. The column should contain a wide range of values.
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 You work as a Database Administrator for Pass4sure.com. The company uses MySQL as its database.
You have created two tables named Employees and Departments in the database. Now, you want to
display data from both tables. Which of the following actions will you perform to accomplish the task.?
A. Join
B. Table Merge operator
C. HAVING
D. GROUP BY
Answer: A

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NO.3 Fill in the blank with the appropriate word.
A ______specifies that the value of a column (or columns), upon which the index is based, must be
unique.
A. unique index
Answer: A

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NO.4 You work as a Database Administrator for Pass4sure.com. The company uses the MySQL database.
You have created a new table named Employees in the database and performed update operation but
you got an error because of the last transaction. Now, you want to terminate the last transaction. Which of
the following commands can you use to accomplish the task?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. ROLLBACK
B. REMOVE
C. DELETE
D. COMMIT
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 Which of the following terms is described in the statement below?
"It is procedural code that is automatically executed in response to certain events on a particular table or
view in a database."
A. Data type
B. Table
C. Datetime data type
D. Database trigger
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following statements is correct for equijoin used to join two tables named Employees and
Department?
A. SELECT Dept_Name, Emp_Name
FROM Departments d1, Employees e1
ORDER BY Dept_Name, Emp_Name;
B. SELECT D.Dept_Name, E.Emp_Name
FROM Departments d1, Employees e1
HAVING Dept_Name, Emp_Name;
C. SELECT E.Emp_Name, D.Dept_Name
FROM Departments d1, Employees e1
WHERE Dept_No = Dept_No
ORDER BY Dept_Name, Emp_Name;
D. SELECT Dept_Name, Emp_Name
FROM Departments d1, Employees e1
WHERE d1.Dept_No = e1.Dept_No
ORDER BY Dept_Name, Emp_Name;
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following properties of concurrency control refers to the requirement that other operations
cannot access or see the data in an intermediate state during the execution of a transaction?
A. Consistency
B. Durability
C. Atomicity
D. Isolation
Answer: D

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NO.8 Adam works as a Database Administrator for Pass4sure.com. The company uses MySQL as its
database. Adam has created a table named Employees in the database. He wants to retrieve the
information of those employees who have at least one person reporting to them. Which of the following
queries will Adam execute to accomplish the task?
A. SELECT employee_id, last_name, job_id, department_id FROM Employees WHERE
employee_id EXISTS (SELECT manager_id WHERE manager_id is NULL);
B. SELECT employee_id, last_name, job_id, department_id FROM Employees HAVING
employee_id IN (SELECT manager_id FROM Employees WHERE manager_id is NOT NULL);
C. SELECT employee_id, last_name, job_id, department_id FROM Employees outer WHERE EXISTS
(SELECT 'x' FROM Employees WHERE manager_id = outer.employee_id);
D. SELECT employee_id, last_name, job_id, department_id FROM Employees WHERE
employee_id IN (SELECT manager_id WHERE manager_id is NOT NULL);
Answer: C

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NO.9 You work as a Database Administrator for Pass4sure.com. The company uses MySQL as its database.
You have created a table named Employees in the database. You want to create a list of
employees working in the organization, but you do not want to display any duplicate row in the report.
Which of the following statements will help you to accomplish the task?
A. SELECT emp_id, emp_name FROM Employees ORDER BY emp_id;
B. SELECT emp_id, emp_name FROM Employees;
C. SELECT DISTINCT emp_id, emp_name FROM Employees;
D. SELECT emp_id, emp_name FROM Employees GROUP BY emp_id;
Answer: C

MYSQL   1Z0-870   1Z0-870   1Z0-870

NO.10 Consider the exhibit given below:
Which of the following queries will return the name of the customer who placed the highest amount of
orders and the total order amount?
A. SELECT CUSTOMER, MAX(UNITPRICE*QUANTITY) AS "TOTAL"
FROM ORDERS
GROUP BY CUSTOMER
/
B. SELECT CUSTOMER, SUM(UNITPRICE*QUANTITY) AS "TOTAL"
FROM ORDERS
WHERE SUM(UNITPRICE*QUANTITY)
=
(SELECT MAX(SUM(UNITPRICE*QUANTITY)
)
FROM ORDERS
GROUP BY CUSTOMER)
GROUP BY CUSTOMER
/
C. SELECT CUSTOMER, SUM(UNITPRICE*QUANTITY) AS "TOTAL"
FROM ORDERS
GROUP BY CUSTOMER
HAVING SUM(UNITPRICE*QUANTITY)
=
(SELECT MAX(SUM(UNITPRICE*QUANTITY)
)
FROM ORDERS
GROUP BY CUSTOMER)
/
D. SELECT CUSTOMER, SUM(UNITPRICE*QUANTITY) AS "TOTAL"
FROM ORDERS
GROUP BY CUSTOMER
HAVING SUM(UNITPRICE*QUANTITY)
=
(SELECT SUM(UNITPRICE*QUANTITY)
FROM ORDERS
GROUP BY CUSTOMER)
/
Answer: C

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NO.11 Fill in the blank with the appropriate word.
The ________data type defines a date that is combined with a time of day along with fractional seconds
that is based on a 24-hour clock.
A. datetime
Answer: A

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NO.12 Fill in the blank with the appropriate term.
A______ provides a concise and flexible means for matching strings of text,
such as particular characters, words, or patterns of characters.
A. regular expression
Answer: A

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NO.13 You work as a Database Administrator for Pass4sure.com. The company uses MySQL as the database
platform. You have created a table named Students in the database. The structure of the table is as
follows:
Stu_ID NUMBER (3) PRIMARY KEY
Stu_Name VARCHAR2 (25) NOT NULL
Fee NUMBER (8, 2)
Class NUMBER (5);
You have executed the following statement for the table "Students":
SELECT e.Stu_Name, m.Fee
FROM Students e, Students m
WHERE e.Stu_ID = m.stu_ID;
Which of the following join types have you used in the above statement?
A. Cross join
B. Equijoin
C. Self join
D. Outer join
Answer: C

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NO.14 You work as a Database Administrator for Pass4sure.com. The company uses MySQL as its database
development platform. You have created a table named Employees in the database.
You want to display the names of the employees whose salary is more than $5000, but you do not want to
display any duplicate content. Therefore, you have written the following query:
SELECT emp_id, DISTINCT emp_name WHERE salary > 5000
FROM Employees;
Which of the following statements is true about the above query?
A. The statement will display only unique names whose salary is more than $5000.
B. The UNIQUE clause should be used in place of the DISTINCT clause.
C. The statement will give an error.
D. The statement will display those records whose salary is more than $5000.
Answer: C

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NO.15 You work as a Database Administrator for Pass4sure.com. The company uses MySQL as its database.
You have written two statements, which are as follows:
1. SELECT DISTINCT OBJECT_TYPE
FROM USER_OBJECTS;
2. SELECT OBJECT_TYPE
FROM ALL_OBJECTS;
Which of the following options explains the difference between the results of these two
statements? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. The first statement will display distinct object types that can be accessed by the user.
B. The second statement will display all object types that a user can access.
C. The first statement will display distinct object types owned by a user.
D. The second statement will display all object types owned by a user.
Answer: B,C

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NO.16 Which of the following are true about UPDATE statements?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. You can use the WHERE clause to have your update affects a specific set of rows.
B. You use the SET clause to update multiple columns of a table separated by commas.
C. You can use co-related sub query in UPDATE statements to update data from other tables.
D. If you don't use the WHERE clause then the UPDATE will not update any rows in the table.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.17 DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the correct constraint types to their corresponding specifications.
Answer:

NO.18 Adam works as a Database Administrator for Pass4sure.com. He creates a table named Students.
He wants to create a new table named Class with the help of the Students table. Which of the following
syntaxes will Adam use to accomplish the task?
A. CREATE TABLE Class
INSERT INTO SELECT * FROM Students;
B. CREATE TABLE Class
FROM SELECT * FROM Students;
C. CREATE TABLE Class
(SELECT * FROM Students);
D. CREATE TABLE Class
AS SELECT * FROM Students;
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which of the following are the types of numeric literals that can be used in arithmetic expressions?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Numeric
B. Integer
C. Binary
D. Real
Answer: B,D

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NO.20 You work as a Database Administrator for Pass4sure.com. The company uses MySQL as its database.
You have created a new table named Employees, which keeps all the information of the
employees. You want to add a new row to the Employees table. Which of the following statements will you
use to accomplish the task?
A. INSERT (column1, column2, ...columnN) INTO <table_name> VALUES(value1, value2, ...v alueN);
B. INSERT INTO <table_name>(column1, column2, ...columnN) VALUES(value1 ,value2,
...va lueN);
C. INSERT <table_name>(column1, column2, ...columnN), VALUES(value1, value2, ...valueN );
D. INSERT INTO <table_name>(column1, column2,... columnN), VALUES(value1, value2, ...v alueN);
Answer: B

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