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Exam Code: C2140-833
Exam Name: Object Oriented Analysis and Design-Part1(Analysis)
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NO.1 An architect is responsible for creating an Analysis Model for a system. Which area of
focus is
essential for the creation of this model?
A. hardware on which the system will be deployed
B. behavior of the objects that comprise the system
C. evolution of analysis classes into design classes
D. performance requirements of the system
Answer: B

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NO.2 Why is encapsulation important? (Choose two.)
A. It describes the relationship between two subclasses.
B. It places operations and attributes in the same object.
C. It allows other objects to change private operations and attributes of an object.
D. It prevents other objects from directly changing the attributes of an object.
Answer: BD

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NO.3 Which statement is true?
A. The UML is a development process for software intensive systems.
B. The UML is a process-dependent language used for visualizing software artifacts.
C. The UML is a modeling language for software blueprints.
D. The UML is a visual programming language.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What are analysis classes?
A. early conjectures on the composition of the system that usually change over time, rarely
surviving
intact into Implementation
B. incomplete classes that require a programmer to formalize operation signatures and
attribute types
before they can be implemented
C. the classes inside a systems Business Object or Domain Model, in UML form
D. a prototype of a systems user interface, developed during the Analysis Phase, which
allows users to
define the systems look and feel
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which statement is true about an iterative development process?
A. Testing and integration take place in every iteration.
B. An iteration focuses on partial completion of selected use-case realizations.
C. It encourages user feedback in later iterations.
D. It is based on functional decomposition of a system.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which is a characteristic of a structured class?
A. must have one interface for each role it plays
B. can play only one role, no matter how many objects transact with it
C. can play multiple roles that vary on the objects that interact with it
D. is limited to one role, but can have multiple interfaces
Answer: C

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NO.7 In which three ways does a structured class differ from a traditional class? (Choose
three.)
A. It clearly defines the class boundary via an encapsulation shell.
B. It brings public interfaces into the class via ports.
C. It shows the role that the class plays.
D. It defines messages between itself and other classes.
Answer: ABC

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NO.8 What is the focus of analysis?
A. translating functional requirements into code
B. translating requirements into a system design
C. translating real-world concepts into solution-oriented objects
D. translating functional requirements into software concepts
Answer: D

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Exam Code: C2070-585
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Exam Code: A2050-723
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NO.1 Which statement is TRUE?
A. You can restrict fingerprint identification to any vertical subset of the image.
B. You must always use the entire image when attempting fingerprint identification.
C. You can restrict the part of the image used for fingerprint identification, but only to the top or
bottom half of the image.
D. You can restrict fingerprint identification to any subset of an image only if using the DotEdit client.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Assuming this is a single server installation, when moving the application 'XYZ' from
development to production, the Datacap.XML file needs to be updated with the new application
name. What is the correct format for the xml tag for the application called 'XYZ'?
A. [app name="XYZ" ref="XYZ"/]
B. <app name="XYZ" ref="XYZ"/>
C. [app name="XYZ" folder="XYZ"/]
D. <app name="XYZ" folder="XYZ"/>
Answer: B

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NO.3 What are the three key databases used by Taskmaster?
A. Admin, Engine, Fingerprint.
B. Admin, Batches, Fingerprint.
C. Admin, Fingerprint, Rulerunner.
D. Batches, Fingerprint, Rulerrunner.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which statement is TRUE regarding authentication?
A. There is no need for authentication in Datacap
B. It is necessary to configure Taskmaster Web for LDAP authentication
C. If LDAP is enabled, users must have a valid LDAP login in order to log into Taskmaster
D. You can mix and match Taskmaster authentication and LDAP authentication on the same install.
Answer: C

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NO.5 What does the Deployment Professional need to do to generate an RRS log when running a
task in Datacap Studio?
A. Not possible, as Datacap Studio only generates task logs.
B. Set Severity=1 in the log tab for each task wanted in the logs.
C. Set Severity=3 to 9 in the log tab for each task wanted in the logs.
D. Do nothing, since Datacap Studio always generates an RRS log file.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which OCR engine is best suited to recognize handprint?
A. Parascript
B. Nuance OmniPage
C. OpenText Recostar
D. ABBYY FineReader
Answer: C

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NO.7 A Deployment Professional is creating a Taskmaster Application to process mortgage
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sample of Deed Transfer documents that has been seen contains the title "Transfer of Deed",
"Transference Of Deed", "Deed Surrender", "Deed Relinquishment" or "Grant of Ownership"
somewhere on the main page. What would be the best process to use for identifying the main page
of a Deed Transfer in Datacap Studio?
A. Text matching
B. Structure based identification
C. Full text analytics using Wordfire
D. Fingerprinting with full page recognition
Answer: A

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NO.8 A Deployment Professional must configure Taskmaster Web on the client. Which of the
following statements is TRUE?
A. Make sure ActiveX is installed on the workstation
B. The Taskmaster Web Plug-in must be installed on each workstation
C. Open the Taskmaster Web Client Configuration tool and add a check next to "Allow Taskmaster
Web Connections"
D. Open the Taskmaster Web Client Configuration tool and enter the Taskmaster Web URL as follows:
"http://TMWservername/tmweb.net"
Answer: D

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Exam Code: C4070-623
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Exam Code: A2070-583
Exam Name: Assessment: IBM Content Analytics and Search V2.2
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NO.1 What does the acronym UIMA stand for?
A. Uniform IBM Marketechture Asset
B. Unstructured Industry Matrix Alliance
C. Unified Information Machine Architecture
D. Unstructured Information Management Architecture
Answer: D

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NO.2 Why would you create a text analytics collection instead of a search collection?
A. when you want to use a custom annotator
B. when only search applications are required
C. when discovery and data mining are required
D. when searching for documents in more than one collection is required
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is the method used to check the status of indexing on a collection?
A. Open the text miner and click on the 'dashboard' tab.
B. Using the administrative console, stop the indexer component and then click on the log
tab.
C. In the administrative console, click on the 'general' tab, on the 'edit' icon and then on 'view
collection
settings'.
D. In the administrative console, click on the 'parse and index' tab, on the 'monitor' icon and
then click on
'details'.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which cannot be configured in the search server administration?
A. The ability for users to issue wildcard queries.
B. The character which is used to indicate a wildcard query.
C. The ability for users to issue a wildcard query that returns all documents.
D. The number of potential matches the system will search for a wildcard query.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following statements is true?
A. Only search collections can use hierarchical facets.
B. Search collections can be configured to export search results to a Cognos report.
C. Named entity annotators can be enabled in the administrative console for search
collections.
D. Search collections can be configured to use multiple different document dates from the
index in the
search application.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which statement is true for UNIX platforms?
A. The 'esbackup.sh' command must be executed with 'root' privileges.
B. While 'esbackup.sh' command is executing, administrator may continue to use the
administrative
console.
C. If 'esbackup.sh' command takes too long to execute, the administrator may Ctrl-C out of it
and retry at
a later time.
D. After 'esbackup.sh' command is completed, the backed up files can be used to restore a
system with a
new installation.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which statement is NOT true about synonym dictionaries?
A. Words are specific to a language with the synonym dictionary.
B. Only one synonym dictionary can be associated to a collection.
C. Synonym dictionary can be used to improve search of acronyms.
D. Add a synonym dictionary to the system, then associate it to a collection.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following is NOT a type of facet available in the search application?
A. flat facet
B. date range facet
C. hierarchical facet
D. auto-normalized facet
Answer: D

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NO.1 When you execute an INSERT statement, the database server will insert a NULL value into any
column that meets which two conditions? (Choose two.)
A. You provide no value for a specific column.
B. Where a zero is specified in the VALUES clause of a serial column.
C. Where you specify the NULL keyword in the VALUES clause for a specific column.
D. Columns that are used in indexes.
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 Which three statements will delete all rows from table_name? (Choose three.)
A. DELETE FROMtable_name ;
B. DELETEtable_name ;
C. DELETE * FROMtable_name ;
D. TRUNCATE TABLEtable_name ;
E. DELETE ALL FROMtable_name;
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.3 In a SELECT statement, the clauses must appear in which order?
A. Projection, FROM, WHERE, ORDER BY, GROUP BY, HAVING, INTO TEMP
B. Projection, FROM, WHERE, HAVING, ORDER BY, GROUP BY, INTO TEMP
C. Projection, FROM, WHERE, GROUP BY, HAVING, ORDER BY, INTO TEMP
D. Projection, FROM, INTO TEMP, WHERE, HAVING, ORDER BY, GROUP BY
Answer: C

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NO.4 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which statement is true regarding the select statement of Client 2 if both of the clients are
connected to the same logged database?
A. Client 2 will select the rows that had col1=20 and were updated to have col1=25 by Client 1.
B. Client 2 will get an error that the "record is locked" or the "table is locked".
C. Client 2 will keep waiting for client 1 to finish its transaction.
D. Client 2 will return successfully without selecting any rows.
Answer: A

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NO.5 What are three system level databases? (Choose three.)
A. sysmaster
B. sysadmin
C. sysmonitor
D. sysutils
E. sysperf
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.6 User A creates a user defined routine. Which privilege must be granted to other users before they can
use user A's UDR?
A. select on the tables used in the procedure
B. execute on the procedure
C. DBA on the database
D. resource on the database
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which statement will change the column address1 to a null value?
A. UPDATE customer SET address1 = null WHERE customer_num = 134;
B. UPDATE customer SET address1 = '123 New Street', SET address2 = null WHERE customer_num =
134;
C. UPDATE customer SET address1 = "" WHERE customer_num = 134;
D. UPDATE customer SET address1 = null, SET address2 = null WHERE customer_num = 134;
Answer: A

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A. Access to data within a table at a row and column level.
B. Access to data based on the types of tasks to be performed.
C. Control which user(s) may or may not create databases.
D. Control which user(s) may or may not execute administrative functions.
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NO.1 What is the main purpose of the work item discussion section?
A. to add notes and exchange information about the work item
B. to assign the owner of the work item
C. to move the work item through its lifecycle to the resolved state
D. to associate a work item with a release
Answer: A

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NO.2 What are configurable items for the process template?
A. timelines, iterations, roles, and operational behaviors
B. plugins, cheat sheets, and dependencies
C. Java source code, source comments, and event handlers
D. categories, releases, and access control
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. The Deliver operation copies change sets from the repository workspace to the flow target.
B. The Check-In operation copies files modified from the local sandbox to the repository workspace.
C. The Check-Out operation copies files from the repository workspace into the local sandbox.
D. The Accept operation copies change sets from the flow target into the repository workspace and
local sandbox.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.4 In an iteration plan, which value is represented by the length of the progress bar
A. The amount of work estimated
B. The amount of work completed
C. The amount of work on schedule
D. The amount of active work
Answer: B

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NO.5 An organization uses the Formal Project Management process template for a project. Some
work items in the Gantt chart view of an iteration plan for the project are shown in red. What does
red indicate?
A. high severity
B. high priority
C. on the critical path
D. unassigned
Answer: C

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NO.6 When does the RTC SCM detect conflicts? (Choose two.)
A. When incoming and outgoing change sets are coming from the same user
B. When incoming and outgoing change sets include changes to the same file
C. When incoming and outgoing change sets include changes to the same folders
D. When incoming and outgoing change sets are coming from two different users
Answer: B,C

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A. Work item attributes are all optional by design and there is no way to define mandatory
attributes for work items
B. Add a precondition to the Work Item Save operation to define which fields in a work item must
be filled in before it can be saved
C. Work item attributes are all mandatory by design. Users who create a work item are required to
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D. Add a follow-up action to the Work Item Save operation to define the error message to display
when mandatory attributes are not filled in
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is the velocity for a development team following the Scrum process template?
A. the average number of hours the team can deliver in an iteration
B. the average number of stories the team can deliver in an iteration
C. the average number of story points the team can deliver in an iteration
D. the average number of tasks the team can deliver in an iteration
Answer: C

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NO.1 When would a customer use Compress & Optimize.?
A. When similar reports can be consolidated into a single report.
B. When batches of BI reports can be moved over quickly to IBM Cognos 8.
C. When reports or models were not properly maintained and are no longer valid.
D. When dealing primarily with Impromptu Reports and Catalogs.
Answer: A

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NO.2 When migrating an Impromptu catalog, an xml file that uses the same file name already
exists in the
target location. What will the migration process do?
A. Create a new folder called "migration" that includes the migrated xml file.
B. Create a new file to include a date time stamp.
C. Abort the process and write to the log file.
D. Replace the existing file.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which two statements describe a successful migration? (Choose two.)
A. Pre-assessments, fact-finding, investigation, and execution are iterative approaches rather
than a
one-time activity.
B. Identify specific goals for the migration project, and then ensure that the migration meets
expectations
and adds value to your business intelligence environment.
C. Educate yourself and customers about IBM Cognos 8 and then evaluate the current IBM
Cognos
Series 7 applications.
D. Use and leverage the Cognos Solution Implementation Methodology (CSIM) Migration
Roadmap of
detailed activities and deliverables for a migration project.
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 With regards to Impromptu Catalog mapping, which statement is true?
A. Catalog, Report, and File pick list prompts are migrated to value prompts.
B. Impromptu table columns with the IsKey attribute set to "true" become query items with the
usage
attribute set to "fact".
C. HotFiles and Snapshots are migrated, however User Defined Functions (UDFs) are not
migrated.
D. Security filters for table aliases are not migrated.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which three chart types are supported when migrating a chart type within an
Impromptu Report?
(Choose three.)
A. Pie
B. Bubble
C. Radar
D. Hi-low close
E. Gantt
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.6 Which technical migration approach reflects using an offshore approach for additional
savings of time
and money?
A. Lift & Shift
B. Hybrid
C. Compress & Optimize
D. Expand & Purge
Answer: A

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NO.7 If your customer has not yet started a migration project, which migration path should
they follow from
Series 7.3 to IBM Cognos 8.3?
A. Upgrade Series 7 content from version 3 to version 4, and use the 8.3 version of the
migration tools to
migrate from version 4 to 8.3
B. Migrate Series 7.3 content to IBM Cognos 8.3 andthen upgrade to IBM Cognos 8.4
C. Upgrade Series 7 content from version 3 to version 4, and use the 8.4 version of the
migration tools to
migrate to 8.4
D. Migrate Series 7.4 content to IBM Cognos 8.4 using the migration tools
Answer: A

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NO.8 The recommended approach to migration consists of five steps. Four of the steps are
shown below: --
Create new applications in IBM Cognos 8 -- Continue using applications in IBM Cognos
Series 7
environment -- Migrate applications to IBM Cognos 8 -- Migrate multiple applications to one
application
Which step is missing?
A. Lift & Shift
B. Set up interoperability
C. Compress & Optimize
D. Perform training and education
Answer: B

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NO.1 What percentage of asset cost is procurement, and what percentage is operational?
A. 4% is procurement, and 96% is operational.
B. 60% is procurement, and 40% is operational.
C. 96% is procurement, and 4% is operational.
D. 40% is procurement, and 60% is operational.
Answer: A

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Reference:http://www.slideshare.net/hpsoftwaresolutions/how-it-asset-management-fits-withinblu
e-cross-blue-shield-of-floridas-service-asset-configuration-management-initiative(slide 8)
6. Which capabilities does the HP Service Manager offering provide to optimized the high cost of
service desk support? (Select two.)
A. Reduce the high volume of service desk interactions
B. Allows for the automation of manual help desk processes
C. Allows storage provisioning
D. Client OS migrations in both physical and virtual environments
E. Server installation for both physical and virtual environments
Answer: A,B

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7. Which question best summarizes the challenge faced by those who deliver service
management to an organization?
A. When is the appropriate time to test a virtual application?
B. How soon after discovery of delta data does a DDM-I database need a refresh?
C. Which KPIs need to be pushed down to the help desk staff after a virtual machine reload?
D. How do you optimize ITSM investments and the value delivered to the business?
Answer: C

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8. The "number and percentage of emergency changes" and "number and percentage of
unplanned changes detected" are examples of which metric?
A. Metrics are collected by the BSM suite and federated into the CCRM solution database(s)
B. KPIs that are collected by the CCRM solution
C. Capabilities of the BSA suite of products
D. Capabilities of storage automation solutions
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which challenge is faced by organizations dealing with asset management?
A. Individuals and organizations seek to create tools where each user can manually enter
configuration and asset data into a master database.
B. Individuals seek to patch virtual systems with KPI patches and report them back to the system.
C. Organizations seek to push KPI configuration files to the lowest levels in the organization, seeking
to bring transparency to the configurations of all virtual devices.
D. Individuals dealing with asset management seek to lower cost and demonstrate value to the
business.
Answer: D

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NO.3 According to HP , what is a market challenge faced by ITSM businesses?
A. Increase business and IT complexity
B. Application quality
C. The automated discovery of desktops
D. Automation of server (Server Automation)
Answer: A

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NO.4 According to research, what percentage of incidents in the result of improper change?
A. 15%
B. 44%
C. 80%
D. 98%
Answer: C

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NO.5 According to HP , which market challenges are faced by businesses as far as ITSM is concerned?
(Select two.)
A. Desktop installations
B. Server automation visibility
C. Cost-effective service delivery
D. Application performance maintenance
E. Getting the most from assets
Answer: C,D

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NO.1 Which industry standard API mechanism for creating advanced web applications have
mainstream
web organizations like Google, Twitter, and Facebook adopted?
A. HTML
B. REST
C. SOAP
D. HTTPS
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which HP service could you recommend to a customer that has selected their HP StoreAll
system
and arranged delivery?
A. HP Storage Modernization Service
B. HP Storage Impact Analysis Service
C. HP Storage Efficiency Analysis Service
D. HP Enterprise NAS Implementation Service
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which group in customer organizations has proved to be the strongest advocate for client
virtualization programs and should be targeted to identify the potential storage needs of a client
virtualization project?
A. CFO and Finance team
B. CIO and senior IT management
C. IT operations team
D. End Users
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is the power of HP StoreOnce deduplication and Catalyst technology?
A. It enables deduplication tasks to be distributed across the whole information protection
infrastructure including remote offices and the datacenter
B. It provides best in class deduplication in the main data center with 7x the backup performance
of the competition
C. It provides deduplication only at the application server which means application servers can be
restored rapidly
D. It works with HP Data Protector, which means it has an industry leadership position in
enterprise backup
Answer: A

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NO.5 Your customer will achieve which three principle business benefits by deploying HP StoreOnce
technology?
A. Eliminate OpEx costs, meet agreed business SLAs. and manage data growth
B. Save money, meet agreed business SLAs. and manage remote office backup
C. Reduce business risk, meet agreed business SLAs. and reduce backup costs
D. Reduce business nsk. meet compliance needs, and improve backup flexibility
Answer: C

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NO.6 Analysts state that 50% of storage is connected to a virtual machine. What is a key implication
of
this fact for your sales campaigns?
A. It is too late to sell storage for virtualized servers to half the market.All sales campaigns should
focus on selling backup software to these clients
B. Users with traditional storage installations connected to virtual machines will be discovering the
limitations of their existing environments
C. The sales approach will be the same across the board - HP Converged Storage is the most
scalable and cost-effective platform for client virtualization
D. The only opportunity is to consider compliance needs with organizations that have already
onnected disk storage to virtual machines
Answer: C

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NO.7 Your customer's CIO is advocating a move to client virtualization. Which storage criterion is
NOT
relevant for a successful deployment?
A. Storage needs to be tailored to client visualization to deliver an effective ROI
B. Storage needs to be high performance
C. Storage needs to be highly available to meet client needs
D. Storage needs to be in a larger datacenter
Answer: D

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NO.8 Your enterprise customer is planning to build a virtualized Exchange 2010 system with
VMware.
They are considering VMware vMotion to help manage workload rebalancing across multiple
systems when adding storage capacity. What are key reasons why the customer should also
consider HP 3PAR Peer Motion? (Select two.)
A. HP 3PAR Peer Motion minimizes downtime through a central synchronized architecture that
provides mission critical availability.
B. HP 3PAR Peer Motion enables non-disruptive movement of data between multiple HP
StoreServ systems.
C. HP 3PAR Peer Motion uses a high performance Block Migration process that has been
optimized for HP ProLiant Gen8 servers.
D. HP 3PAR Peer Motion enables non-disruptive movement of data between HP 3PAR StoreServ
and any other 3rd party SAN environment
E. HP 3PAR Peer Motion can be combined with HP 3PAR Thin Persistence software to reduce
storage I/O and capacity requirements.
Answer: C,D

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Exam Code: C2140-136
Exam Name: Rational Application Developer v7
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Exam Code: HP5-K03D
Exam Name: Delta - Supporting and Servicing HP 3PAR StoreServ Solutions
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Exam Code: HP2-B105
Exam Name: Selling HP DesignJet Production Printing
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NO.1 How many front panel security levels can be setup by using the HP Embedded Webserver?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 7
Answer: B

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NO.2 What can pigment-based inks be used with?
A. Swellable coatings only
B. Porous coatings only
C. Both swellable and porous coatings, but swellable coatings are better
D. Both swellable and porous coatings, but porous coatings are better
Answer: B

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Reference:
http://www.hp.com/hpinfo/newsroom/press_kits/ 2012 /HPdrupa12 /HP_LF_Graphics_Technical.pdf(
page 6)

NO.3 What is the correct hard disk and memory capacity available on the HP DesignJet T7100?
A. 120GB Hard drive and 128GB of virtual memory
B. 160GB Hard drive and 32GB of virtual memory
C. 160GB Hard drive and 64GB of virtual memory
D. 360GB Hard drive and 16GB of virtual memory
Answer: B

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n_US/-/USD/ViewProductDetail-Start?ProductUUID=z2MQ7EN53aIAAAEtoIRVIOG7&CatalogCatego
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NO.4 What is the target application for the Gloss Enhancer ink?
A. line drawings
B. high end photography
C. black and white photography
D. pantone matching
Answer: B

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6. Which staggered printhead system provides fast print speed on the HP DesignJet Z6200?
A. Double Array
B. Double Head
C. Double Swath
D. X2 printhead system
Answer: C

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Reference:http://www.jenrite.co.nz/producte4eb4047-db4c-4661-804a-50da2890431e.aspx(third
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NO.5 Which HP DesignJet Z6200 printer feature controls the advance of media, thus improving print
quality even at high print speeds?
A. masking
B. spectrophotometer
C. dithering
D. OMAS
Answer: D

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NO.1 What is a common reason why HP loses thin client sales opportunities?
A. Failure to understand customer needs
B. Poorly managed evaluation process that fails to prove the concept
C. Fear of the competition
D. Competitor has the lead
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which series of HP thin clients is only designated for use with PC over IP?
A. HP zero clients
B. HP ProLiant thin clients
C. HP flexible thin clients
D. HP smart zero clients
Answer: A

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Reference:http://www.channelinsider.com/c/a/Reviews/Thin-Client-Technology-From-Teradici-Enha
nces-DLP-Security-With-Low-Cost-PC-over-IP-Solution-759844 /

NO.3 Which feature differentiates HP t820 thin clients from HP t620 thin clients?
A. Intel Core i5-4570S processor
B. Built with the environment in mind
C. OS-dependent protocol
D. Enterprise-class 802.11 a/b/g/n Wi-Fi with dual internal antennas
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which operating system feature applies to HP mt41 Mobile Thin Clients?
A. Configuration dependent operating system
B. No on board operating system
C. Microsoft WES 7E operating system
D. Optional operating system
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is the difference between server-based computing and virtual-desktop infrastructure?
A. Virtual desktop infrastructure is sharing one desktop computer with one or more thin clients,
while server based computing is sharing one or more desktop computers with one or more servers.
B. Virtual desktop infrastructure is a system where each desktop PC is rack mounted and managed
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C. Virtual desktop infrastructure hosts computer images for remote computing while server-based
computing is an environment where computing occurs directly on the server and the user interface
is accessed remotely.
D. Virtual desktop infrastructure and server-based computing are two different terms for the same
network environment.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Reference:http://www.brianmadden.com/blogs/brianmadden/archive/ 2007 / 03 /14 /when-to-use-vdi
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NO.6 What type of user is someone who needs a PC-like experience, heavy performance, and 3D
graphics for use in data intensive applications?
A. Knowledge worker
B. Task worker
C. Power and flexible user
D. Office worker
Answer: C

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Exam Name: Selling HP Converged Infrastructure Solutions
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Exam Code: HP2-N28
Exam Name: Selling HP Fortify Security Assurance Solution
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NO.1 What are typical business drivers for HP Fortify solutions? (Select two.)
A. Suffered security breach
B. Compliance program
C. Reported performance issues
D. SLA improvement initiative
E. Cost reduction
Answer: B, E

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NO.2 Which acronym represents an open framework that helps organizations formulate and
implement a strategy for software security that is tailored to the specific risks facing the
organization?
A. WASP
B. SAMM
C. ISACA
D. ISSA
Answer: B

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Reference:
http://www.opensamm.org/ (first para)

NO.3 In the Software Security Assurance Maturity Spectrum, which statement is true for the "Fortify
(Prevention)" phase?
A. The security team is responsible for application security, and the development team supports
their effort.
B. The development team is responsible for application security with little or no support from the
security team.
C. The security team is responsible for application security with little or no support from the
development team.
D. The development team shares responsibility for application security, and the security team
supports their effort.
Answer: A

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NO.4 In which stage of the development lifecycle does the implementation of an HP Fortify solution
provide the highest ROI?
A. Development
B. Performance
C. Testing
D. Production
Answer: C

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NO.5 What are elements of a reactive approach to application security?
A. Security testing is performed before deployment, and security gates are agreed upon (jointly
implemented) by the security and development teams.
B. Security testing is embedded into the SDLC, the security and the development teams work
together as a single team.
C. Security testing is performed in production by customers or ad-hoc testers, and the development
team is tasked with code fixes.
D. Security testing is
performed in production, and the operations team is responsible for security monitoring and code
fixes.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Where do the majority of security breaches happen today?
A. Network layer
B. Host layer
C. Application layer
D. Access layer
Answer: C

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Reference:
https://www.owasp.org/images/7 /7b/OWASP-Italy_Day_IV_Morana.pdf (slide 8, first bullet)

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Exam Name: HITACHI DATA SYSTEMS CERTIFIED EXPERT -REPLICATION SOLUTIONS ARCHITECT
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Exam Code: HH0-130
Exam Name: Hitachi Data Systems Storage Fondations
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NO.1 Which three actions can be performed with Storage Navigator 2 on a VSP? (Choose three.)
A. Define migration policies.
B. Provision the storage system.
C. View system alerts.
D. Acquire logs.
E. Set System Option Modes.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.2 A company has purchased a HUS VM storage system and they want to connect it to their
existing
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CHB ports?
A. Port Aggregation
B. Shared Memory Paths
C. High Speed Port Mode
D. Host Group
Answer: D

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NO.3 Your customer has purchased Hitachi Tiered Storage Manager (HTSM) to support their Service
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systems. Which type of migration will be performed?
A. non-disruptive volume migration based on conditions
B. dynamic file migration based on conditions
C. non-disruptive file level migration based on conditions
D. dynamic "page" level migration based on I/O load
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer would like to deploy a new HUS system with Hitachi Dynamic Provisioning (HDP).
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more DP-Vols to be created beyond a certain percentage. Which over-provisioning threshold can
an administrator configure to achieve this?
A. Early Alert
B. Warning
C. Limit
D. Depletion Alert
Answer: C

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NO.5 A HUS VM customer requires a tool set to gather and report on application service level
objectives
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A. HUS VM Virtual Partition Manager Package
B. HUS VM Analytics Package
C. HUS VM Mobility Package
D. HUS VM Local Protection Package
Answer: B

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NO.6 What are two components of a storage cluster in a VSP? (Choose two.)
A. Front-End Directors (FED)
B. Fiber Switches (FSW)
C. Virtual Storage Directors (VSD)
D. Service Processors (SVP)
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 What are two valid Hitachi Data Ingestor (HDI) configuration options? (Choose two.)
A. as a single node
B. as a n+1 cluster
C. as a VMware appliance
D. as a Hyper-V appliance
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 What are two advantages of TrueCopy Extended Distance replication? (Choose two.)
A. It has no data loss.
B. It provides extended de-duplication.
C. It provides write order integrity.
D. It provides consistency group support.
Answer: C,D

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