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Exam Code: ST0-155
Exam Name: Clearwell eDiscovery Platform 7.x Technical Assessment
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Exam Code: 250-352
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Exam Code: ST0-153
Exam Name: Symantec PGP Universal Server 3.2 Technical Assessment
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Exam Code: 250-309
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Exam Code: ST0-029
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NO.1 Which two high-level components make up the Symantec Endpoint Protection solution? (Select two.)
A. Symantec Endpoint Protection
B. Symantec Critical System Protection
C. Symantec Security Information Manager
D. Symantec Network Access Control
Answer: AD

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NO.2 Which two are characteristics of Proactive Threat Protection? (Select two.)
A. detects unknown threats
B. inspects encrypted network traffic
C. evaluates process behavior
D. blocks attacker's IP address
Answer: AC

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NO.3 Which statement is true about Symantec Network Access Control 11.0 client administration?
A. The administration console for Symantec Network Access Control 11.0 has been updated to resemble
the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console.
B. Symantec Network Access Control 11.0 centralized administration is now provided exclusively through
the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console.
C. The administration console for Symantec Network Access Control 11.0 now includes fields and options
that require that Network Threat protection is enabled.
D. Symantec Network Access Control 11.0 can now be administered through either its own console or the
Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is a benefit of Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0?
A. A single client provides all functions, which reduces the resource usage footprint.
B. Solaris is a supported platform for the client.
C. The number of required management consoles is reduced from five to three, which simplifies
administration compared to previous versions.
D. Proactive Threat Protection runs in real-time.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which Symantec Network Access Control method supports basic and transparent mode for 802.1x?
A. Gateway Enforcer
B. Self Enforcement
C. DHCP Enforcer
D. LAN Enforcer
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which two do you need in order to add a Replication Partner? (Select two.)
A. local domain user and password
B. administrator name and password
C. local domain administrator name and password
D. replication server name and port
Answer: BD

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NO.7 What are three features of Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0? (Select three.)
A. Application Performance Management
B. Client Firewall
C. Application and Device Control
D. Endpoint Change Control
E. Intrusion Prevention
Answer: BCE

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NO.8 When using the Push Deployment wizadr, which two methods can you use to identify the target
machines to which you want to install the Symantec Endpoint Protection client? (Select two.)
A. browse through Windows Networking
B. import a file containing IP addresses
C. specify a UNC path
D. import a file containing MAC addresses
E. import hostnames from an LDAP server
Answer: AC

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Exam Code: 850-001
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Exam Code: ASC-093
Exam Name: ASC Data Loss Prevention 2010
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NO.1 Data Loss Prevention (DLP) Network Prevent supports load balancing among multiple Prevent servers
in high volume networks. In the absence of a network load balancing device, what is the best practice for
enabling load balance among multiple Prevent servers?
A. enable Load Balancing in the Settings, Servers Overview page
B. In the case of Network Prevent for Email, the upstream MTA is configured with the IP address of each
Prevent server. This is done in a similar fashion for the web proxy server(s) with the IP address of each
Network Prevent for web server.
C. A third Network Interface Card (NIC) is required for each Prevent server to be used as a "heartbeat
monitor" to the other Prevent servers. Once installed and configured, the Prevent servers act as a virtual
cluster.
D. configure a DNS alias to point to the IP address of each Prevent server, also known as a DNS Round
Robin
Answer: D

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NO.2 When implementing an automated response rule, what must be done to make the rule execute?
A. select Incident All and click the Response Rule button to execute
B. enable response rules from the Settings page
C. add the response rule to the appropriate policy
D. Automated response rules are effective as soon as they are created
Answer: C

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NO.3 A user has determined that many incidents are showing 100 matches per incident from the default PCI
policy template. The user needs to increase this limit to better reflect the most critical files with the most
violations. Which change will increase the number of maximum matches per incident?
A. change the value for DI.MaxViolations
B. change the value for IncidentDetection.patternConditionMaxViolations
C. change the value for EDM.MaximumNumberOfMatchesToReturn
D. change the value for Incident Threshold within the relevant policy
Answer: A

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NO.4 If an Enforce server is configured to use Active Directory (AD) authentication for logins, which statement
is true?
A. Any user that has an account in AD can log in to Enforce as long as they have been assigned a role.
B. Any user that has an account in AD can log in to Enforce as long as they have been added to the
krb5.ini or krb5.conf file.
C. Any user that has an account in AD can log in to Enforce as long as their Organizational Unit has been
assigned to a Policy Group.
D. Any user that has an account in AD can log in to Enforce as long as they have a matching user name in
Enforce.
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is the best method for deploying a policy to Endpoint agents that makes use of Index Matching.
A. create the policy using Described Content, then "and" the Index Matching statement into the policy
B. Policies that use Index Matching cannot be deployed to Endpoint agents.
C. create the policy using the Index Matching statement, then "and" a Described Content statement into
the policy
D. combine all Index Matching statements that are to be deployed to Endpoint agents into one single
policy
Answer: A

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NO.6 Endpoint agents CANNOT monitor data copies to what?
A. CD/DVD
B. network shares
C. USB (for example, thumb drives)
D. printers/faxes
Answer: B

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NO.7 Data Loss Prevention (DLP) can use custom SSL certificates to secure communication between the
Endpoint server and Endpoint agents. What is the name of the tool that is used to create these
certificates?
A. endpointssl.exe
B. endpointkeytool.exe
C. sslkeytool.exe
D. endpointsslkey.exe
Answer: B

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NO.8 Symantec Data Loss Prevention can be configured to populate custom attributes pulled from a
Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) server. In addition to LiveLdapLookup.properties, which
other file must be modified to configure custom attributes.?
A. Plugins.properties
B. Manager.properties
C. Jdbc.properties
D. Aggregator.properties
Answer: A

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Exam Name: Admin of Veritas Storage Foundation HA 5.0 for Windows
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Exam Code: 250-240
Exam Name: Administration of Storage Foundation 4.0 for UNIX
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NO.1 You have a disk group named testdg, which you want to rename to engdg. To rename the disk group
from the command line, you __________.
A. must destroy the disk group and then re-create the disk group using the new name
B. must use the vxdg change command, which performs a deport and an import in a single step
C. use vxdg deport followed by vxdg import, and the volumes are automatically started in the disk group
after the import
D. use vxdg deport followed by vxdg import, then you must manually start volumes in the disk group by
using the vxvol command
Answer: D

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NO.2 What must be performed before creating an empty concatenated volume in a new disk group?
A. encapsulate the volume and assign a disk group
B. initialize the disks and assign them to a disk group
C. create an empty subdisk in the disk group and assign the volume
D. in VEA, select Actions -> Volume -> Disk Group -> New
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which command is used to move the contents of the volumes from one disk to another?
A. vxremove
B. vxevac
C. vxdg move
D. vxdg evac
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which two virtual objects are components of a Volume Manager volume? (Choose two.)
A. VM disk
B. subdisk
C. plex
D. physical disk
Answer: BC

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NO.5 In this volume layout the mirroring occurs below the striping or concatenation in order to mirror each
column of the stripe or each chunk of the concatenation. This type of layout is called a layered volume.
What is the correct RAID level for a volume layout that combines mirroring with striping or concatenation?
A. RAID-1+0
B. RAID-0+1
C. RAID-5
D. RAID-2
Answer: A

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NO.6 What are three advantages of a properly configured traditional mirrored volume layout? (Choose
three.)
A. improved reliability and availability
B. decreases the need for Volume Manager disks
C. improved read performance
D. fast recovery through logging
Answer: ACD

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NO.7 You want to track changes to files and directories in a file system to improve performance of a search
engineapplication. Which VERITAS File System feature do you enable?
A. the intent log
B. the file change log
C. the object location table file
D. the quotas file
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is the virtual object that Volume Manager uses to represent the structured or ordered collection of
subdisks?
A. volume
B. plex
C. vmdisk
D. disk group
Answer: B

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NO.1 During installation, the ProductList.sar file can be changed to update:_____
A.the components available to upload
B.the components available to download
C.the installed components
D.the registered components
Correct:A

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NO.2 What Java CAPS elements below are required for code to be Executed and Monitored in
Production? 1. Enterprise Manager 2. Enterprise Designer 3. Repository 4. UDDI Server 5. Domain
6. An .ear file
A.3, 2, 6 & 5 only.
B.4 to discover services, 3, 1 & 5.
C.4 to discover services, 6, 5 & 1.
D.1, 5 & 6 only.
E.3 to discover services, 5, 6 & 1.
Correct:C

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NO.3 To utilize a component from one Project in another, you can: (Select all that apply.) _____
A.export the component from the source Project and import it to the target Project
B.copy the component from the source Project and paste it to the target Project
C.include the remote component in the Deployment Profile of the target Project
D.drag-and-drop the component onto the target Projects Connectivity Map
E.you can not share components among Projects
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NO.4 What is the difference between undeploy and disable in the Enterprise Manager?
A.Undeploy temporarily stops the ear, Disable removes it from the domain.
B.Undeploy removes the ear from eManager, Disable doesnt.
C.Undeploy removes the ear file from the Domain, Disable stops it temporarily.
D.None of the Above.
Correct:C

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NO.5 Java CAPS Documentation can be accessed: (Select all that apply) _____
A.by uploading the docs to the Repository and viewing them through the Enterprise Manager
B.by decompressing the capsDocs.sar file to a directory of your choice
C.in the installed tree structure on the Repository
D.from the help screen dialog box
E.from the Documentation CD
F.from the docs.sun.com website
Correct:A C F

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NO.6 Which Java CAPS component determines the fields within a message that can be accessed by a
Java Collaboration?
A.Business Process
B.Connectivity Map
C.Object Type Definition
D.Activity
Correct:C

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NO.7 In order to have more than one activity executing concurrently in a Business Process, which
eInsight modeling element should be used?
A.the Event-Based Decision element
B.the Reply modeling element
C.the Join modeling element
D.the Flow modeling element
Correct:D

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NO.8 Which of the following add-ons are required when attempting to exchange messages with a JMS
Message Server external to Java CAPS?
A.the JMS eWay
B.the eGate API Kit
C.JMS Message Selectors
D.this can be done programmatically without additional products
Correct:B

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NO.1 SCO OpenServer Release 5 recognizes the main built-in parallel port for a server as lp0. The
interrupt vector it typically uses is:
A. IRQ 3
B. IRQ 5
C. IRQ 7
D. IRQ 11
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which mail channel protocol is used by SCO OpenServer to transmit outgoing e-mail over a
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A. POP3
B. IMAP4
C. SMTP
D. SNMP
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which filesystems support versioning?
A. EAFS and HTFS
B. DTFS and HTFS
C. EAFS, DTFS, and HTFS
D. All supported filesystems
Answer: B

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NO.4 If a printer will be down for an extended period, which command should you use to prevent
jobs
from accumulating in that printers queue?
A. disable(C)
B. cancel(C)
C. lpshut(ADM)
D. reject(ADM)
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which command can be used to reactivate a retired user account on a system with a security
profile set to traditional?
A. activate(ADM)
B. restore(ADM)
C. unretire(ADM)
D. A retired account cannot be reactivated.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which command causes the inetd daemon to re-read the /etc/inetd.conf file?
A. inetd restart
B. kill -1 PID, where PID is the process ID of the inetd process
C. telinit inetd
D. Nothing, the changes will take effect immediately
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which shutdown(ADM) option specifies the amount of time the system will pause before
shutting
down?
A. -f
B. -g
C. -i
D. -y
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which level of backup is used when you perform an unscheduled backup?
A. Level 0
B. Level 1
C. Level 2
D. Level 3
Answer: A

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NO.1 John is the MultiCorp Security Administrator. If he suggests a change in the firewall configuration, he
must submit his proposal to David, a Security manager. One day David is out of the office and john
submits his proposal to peter, surprisingly, Peter is not able to approve the proposal the system does not
permit him to do so (See figure below)
Next day David is back and he can carry out this operation.
Both the David and peter have accounts as administrators in the Security management Server and both
have the read/write all permission. What is the reason for the difference? Choose the best answer.
A. There were some hardware/software issues at the Security management Server on the first day.
B. Peter was not log on to system for a long time.
C. The attribute manage administrators was not assigned to peter.
D. The specific SmartWorkflow read/write permissions were assigned to David only.
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is the benefit to running Eventia Analyzer in Learning Mode?
A. There is no Eventia Analyzer Learning Mode
B. To run Eventia Analyzer, with a step-by-step online configuration guide for training/setup purpose
C. To run Eventia Analyzer with preloaded sample data in a test environment
D. To generate a report with system Event Policy modification suggestions
Answer: D

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NO.3 Reporter reports can be used to analyze data from a penetration-testing regimen in all of the following
examples, EXCEPT
A. Possible worm/malware activity.
B. Tracking attempted port scans.
C. Analyzing traffic patterns against public resources.
D. Analyzing access attempts via social-engineering.
Answer: D

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NO.4 You believe Phase 2 negotiations are failing while you are attempting to configure a site-to-site VPN
with one of your firm's business partners. Which SmartConsole application should you use to confirm your
suspicions?
A. SmartDashboard
B. SmartView Tracker
C. SmartUpdate
D. SmartView Status
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following is not accelerated by SecureXL?
A. FTP
B. HTTPS
C. Telnet
D. SSH
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following is a supported deployment for Connectra?
A. IPSO 4.9 build 88
B. VMWare ESX
C. Solaris 10
D. Windows server 2007
Answer: B

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NO.7 From the following output of cphaprob state, which ClusterXL mode is this?
A. New mode
B. Multicast mode
C. Legacy mode
D. Unicast mode
Answer: D

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NO.8 To change the default port of the Management Portal.
A. Edit the masters, conf file on the Portal server
B. Modify the file cp_httpd_admin. conf.
C. Run sysconfig and change the management interface
D. Re-initialize SIC.
Answer: B

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NO.1 Laura notices the Microsoft Visual Basic kill Bits protection is sent to inactive. She
wants to set the
micro soft Visual Basic Kill bits protection and all other low performance impact protection to
prevent. She
asks her manager for approval and he stated she can turn these on. But he Laura to make
sure no high
performance impact protections are limited on while changing this setting.
Using the output below, how would Laura change the default-protection on performance
impact
protections classified as low from inactive to prevent while still meeting her other criteria?
A. Go to profiles > Default_protection and unlock Do not activate protections with
performance impact to
medium or above
B. Go to profiles > Default_protection and select Do not activate protections with performance
impact to
low or above
C. Go to profiles > Default_protection and select Do not activate protections with
performance impact to
medium or above
D. Go to profiles > Default_protection and unlock Do not activate protections with
performance impact to
high or above
Answer: C

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NO.2 From the following output of cphaprob state, which ClusterXL mode is this?
A. New mode
B. Multicast mode
C. Legacy mode
D. Unicast mode
Answer: D

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NO.3 You believe Phase 2 negotiations are failing while you are attempting to configure a
site-to-site VPN
with one of your firm's business partners. Which SmartConsole application should you use to
confirm your
suspicions?
A. SmartDashboard
B. SmartView Tracker
C. SmartUpdate
D. SmartView Status
Answer: B

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NO.4 When checkpoint product is used to create and save changes to a Log consolidation
policy?
A. Security Management Server
B. Eventia Reporter Client
C. SmartDashboard Log Consolidator
D. Eventia Reporter Server
Answer: D

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NO.5 In which case is a Sticky Decision Function relevant?
A. Load Sharing
Unicast
B. Load Balancing
Forward
C. High Availability
D. Load Sharing - Multicast
Answer: D

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NO.6 What are the SmartProvisioning Policy Status indicators?
A. OK, Down, Up, Synchronized
B. OK. Waiting, Out of Sync, Not Installed, Not communicating
C. OK, Unknown, Not Installed, May be out of date
D. OK, Waiting, Unknown, Not Installed, Not Updated, May be out of date
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is the purpose of the pre-defined exclusions Included with Eventia Analyzer and
IPS Event
Analysis R7P?
A. To give samples of how to write your own exclusion.
B. As a base for starling and building exclusions
C. To allow Eventia Analyzer and IPS Event Analysis R70 to function property with all other
R70 release
devices
D. To avoid incorrect event generation by the default IPS event definition, a scenario that
may occur in
deployments that include Security Gateways of versions prior to R70
Answer: D

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NO.8 You are trying to configure Directional VPN Rule Match in the Rule Base. But the
match column does
not have the option to see the directional match. You see the following window. What must
you enable to
see the Directional match?
A. VPN Directional Match on the Gateway object's VPN tab
B. Advanced Routing on each Security Gateway
C. VPN Directional Match on the VPN advanced Window, m Global Properties
D. Directional_match (True) in the objects_5_0 file on Security management Server
Answer: C

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NO.1 WS_API provides a web service interface to: (Choose two)
A. Existing business services on the grid.
B. The command-line interface (CLI)-based controller of the CA AppLogic grid.
C. One or multiple CA AppLogic grids, through a Representational State Transfer (REST)-based
service.
D. Large pools of virtualized infrastructure within each Virtual Data Center (VDC), which you can
programmatically control.
Answer: A

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A. PS8
B. HALB
C. WEB5
D. INSSL
Answer: A

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NO.3 You have completed the build for a new application and have had it running for two days. You
decide to
add monitoring capabilities to your application. After dragging a MON appliance to the grid, you use
balloon connectors to connect the mon interface of all your appliances to the mon interface of the
MON
appliance. Then you click the Monitor button. However, the monitoring function does not work.
Before you
make a second attempt at running the monitoring function, what do you need to do?
A. Configure a Monitoring Policy.
B. Save and restart your application.
C. Save your application and do no more.
D. Reconstruct the application, because you cannot add a MON appliance after an application has
already been running.
Answer: B

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NO.4 If you are using a Windows computer, how do you access a Virtual Dedicated Server (VDS) for
the
Linux operating system?
A. Remote Desktop
B. Login (graphic) option
C. Secure Shell (SSH) from the PuTTY tool
D. Cygwin bash using the following command: windows cmd.exe shell
Answer: C

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NO.5 CA AppLogic virtualizes access to
Which types of peripheral devices? (Choose two)
A. Serial ports
B. Tape drives
C. Block storage devices
D. Network interface cards (NICs)
Answer: C,D

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NO.1 In a default installation of Mac OS X v10.5, which command should you enter in Terminal to
search for a user named "kim" in all directory domains in your search path?
A. dscl localhost read /Search/Users/kim
B. dscl localhost read /Default/Users/kim
C. dscl localhost read /127.0.0.1 /Users/kim
D. dscl localhost read /Local/Default/Users/kim
Answer: A

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NO.2 CORRECT TEXT
You can use____ to map an Open Directory record to an LDAP record?
Answer: Directory Utility

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NO.3 GeneratedUIDs provide for user identification in which TWO contexts?
A. file ACLs
B. file ownership
C. password policies
D. group membership
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 CORRECT TEXT
In a default configuration of a Mac OS X v10.5 computer, ___ folder will contain Open Directory logs.
Answer: /Library/Logs/DirectoryService/
7. A search base for an LDAP request describes the location in the LDAP hierarchy where the
search will begin.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

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8. Please point out which type of entry in an LDAP schema defines the record type(s) that the
LDAP directory supports?
A. OID base
B. object class
C. syntax definition
D. attribute definition
Answer: B

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9. A search base for an LDAP request describes the directory services data types that correspond
to the LDAP entry being searched
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

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10. A search base for an LDAP request describes the client application making the search request
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

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11. You are configuring a Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer to search multiple directory domains.
How to specify the order in which the server searches the directories when authenticating users?
A. You should define a custom search path in the Authentication pane of Directory Utility.
B. You should run slapconfig -setauthmechanisms and specify the directory domain search order.
C. You should modify the mapping for the AuthenticationAuthority attribute in the Mappings pane
of Directory Utility.
D. You should configure the computer account and enter the authentication search path in the
Advanced pane of Workgroup Manager.
Answer: A

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12. A Mac OS X v10.5 computer is bound to an Active Directory server using the Active Directory
plug-in in Directory Access. Using the default configuration of the plug-in, what is the Mac OS X user
ID number for a user account provided by the Active Directory server?
A. The user ID number is always set to 500.
B. The user ID number is the value stored in the user account's UID attribute.
C. The user ID number is generated based on the user account's Globally Unique ID (GUID).
D. The user ID number is a randomly generated value that does not conflict with any user IDs used
by the local user records.
Answer: C

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13. Which statement describes a standard attribute in Mac OS X v10.5 directory services?
A. An attribute defined by RFC2307
B. An attribute required by Mac OS X v10.5 to publish services with Bonjour
C. An attribute required by Open Directory to support network logins in Mac OS X v10.5
D. An attribute in an Open Directory record that includes default mappings to one or more native
attributes in a local or connected directory
Answer: D

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14. Which attribute in a Mac OS X network user account stores the network location of the user's
home folder?
A. The UserHome attribute in the mount record
B. The VFSLinkDir attribute in the mount record
C. The ExportDirectory attribute in the computer record
D. The HomeDirectory attribute in the user account record
Answer: D

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15. In Mac OS X v10.5, which command should you enter in Terminal to send a HUP signal to a
process?
A. sig
B. kill
C. stop
D. signal
Answer: B

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NO.5 There is one Open Directory master with many replicas. But it fails to work fine. How should
you promote one of the replicas to master and have all the other replicas look to the new master?
A. You should use Server Admin to change one of the Open Directory replicas to a master, and then
change all of the remaining Open Directory replicas to standalone servers, and back to replicas.
B. You should use dsconfig ldap to change one of the Open Directory replicas to a master, and then
use Server Admin to change all of the remaining Open Directory replicas to standalone servers, and
back to replicas.
C. You should use Server Admin to change one of the Open Directory replicas to a master, and then
change the address of the Open Directory master on all of the remaining replicas, without changing
the role of the replicas.
D. You should use dscl to change one of the Open Directory replicas to a master, and then use server
admin to change the address of the Open Directory master on all of the replicas, without changing
the role of the replicas.
Answer: A

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NO.6 A search base for an LDAP request describes the network path to the LDAP server that the
request will search
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

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NO.1 In numbered WAN scenarios, which protocol will configure the IPv4 address of an RG?
A. DHCP
B. LCP
C. IPCP
D. ARP
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which network element will add the PPPoE Relay Tag?
A. RG
B. BSAN
C. BSA
D. BNG
Answer: B

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NO.3 A subscriber-host gets an IP address from the RG using SLAAC and all prefixes are centrally
managed.
How does the RG receive the correct information?
A. The RG receives the prefix from the BNG using SLAAC.
B. The RG receives the prefix information encapsulated in a DHCPv4 message.
C. The RG receives the IA_PD in a DHCPv6 message.
D. The RG receives the IA_NA in a DHCPv6 message.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following elements is part of the access network?
A. IP phone
B. RG
C. BSAN
D. BNG
Answer: C

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NO.5 In an FTTU deployment, what device in the home network is used to connect to the provider
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A. DSL modem
B. DSLAM
C. ONT
D. P-OLT
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following is correct in a VLAN per all services for all subscribers?
A. One port per BSAN
B. One port per service
C. One SAP per service
D. One SAP per BSAN
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is the ultimate goal of Triple Play services?
A. To bring Ethernet technologies to the subscriber's home.
B. To assist providers in managing their IP networks.
C. To move HSI, voice, and video onto a converged IP core.
D. To accelerate the deployment of MPLS in the provider network.
Answer: C

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NO.8 How many queues per subscriber can be allocated using a high-speed Media Dependent
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A. 64 ingress or egress queues
B. 16 ingress and 16 egress queues
C. 8 ingress and 8 egress queues
D. 8 ingress or egress queues
Answer: C

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NO.1 Which Switch 5500 PWR LED condition indicates the switch is powered-up and operating normally?
A.Off
B.Green
C.Green flashing
D.Solid green when not transmitting user data and flashing green when transmitting user data
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the effect of the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) switch command snmp-agent
target-host trap address udp-domain 129.102.149.23 udp-port 5000 params securityname 3comprivate?
A.Configures the switch with a default community string name of 3comprivate
B.Enables the SNMP trap functions on a switch with IP address 129.102.149.23
C.Configures the switch SNMP agent to send traps to the network management station at IP address
129.102.149.23
D.Enables the SNMP trap functions and sets the default community string name of 3compublic on a
switch with IP address 129.102.149.23
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which two are functions of Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)? (Choose two.)
A.Provides a framework and transport for the exchange of authentication information between the
authenticator and the supplicant
B.Provides encapsulation for the exchange of information between the authenticator and authentication
server
C.Provides the mechanism for locking/unlocking a switch port based on the results of the supplicants
authentication
D.Provides the mechanism for defining what network resources a user may access based on the
authentication information
Answer: AB

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NO.4 Which three are Switch 5500 configuration requirements when creating an eXpandable Resilient
Networking (XRN) Fabric? (Choose three.)
A.All units in the stack must have the same sysname
B.All units in the stack must be running the same software version
C.A mixture of switch models can be used to create a single XRN Fabric
D.Switch 5500-SI/EI up/down ports must be enabled for fabric mode
E.A switch must be initialized after it has been added to an existing XRN Fabric
Answer: ABD

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NO.5 What is the reason to connect the up port on the bottom Switch 5500 in the stack to the down port of
the top Switch 5500 in the same stack?
A.Reliability - creates a resilient topology
B.Security - prevents an unauthorized user from connecting to the switch stack
C.Performance - creates the 48-Gbps eXpandable Resilient Networking (XRN) Fabric
D.Management - enables Distributed Resilient Routing (DRR) on the Switch 5500-SI
Answer: A

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NO.6 How would you view the configuration information that is running on a switch?
A.Use the display startup command
B.Use the display version command
C.Use the display saved-configuration command
D.Use the display current-configuration command
Answer: D

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NO.7 You have issued the switch debugging command debugging rip packets from the management terminal,
but you are not receiving any debug output. What is the reason you are not getting any debug output from
the switch?
A.RIP has not been enabled, and therefore there is no debug output
B.Output from the debugging command only goes to the syslog server
C.You forgot to issue the enable debugging command at the System View
D.You forgot to issue the terminal debugging command, directing the output to your management terminal
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which two are general Link Aggregation (LA) configuration rules that must be followed when creating
an LA group? (Choose two.)
A.A member link port can only belong to one LA group
B.Aggregated links are mutually exclusive with roving analysis and mirror ports
C.A port must be configured for resilient links before it can be configured as a member of an LA group
D.LA ports can only be configured if Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP) is enabled on the switches
Answer: AB

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