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Exam Code: E20-005
Exam Name: EMC (Backup Recovery Systems and Architecture Exam)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 You are planning the staging policy for disk-to-offsite tape backup media. In addition to available disk
space, which factor is most significant when determining how long to keep the backup data on disk?
A. Length of time when most restore requests are expected to occur
B. Location of offsite storage
C. Cost of shipping and storing tapes
D. Tape capacity
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which type of backup only copies the files that have changed since the last full backup.?
A. Cumulative
B. Full
C. Incremental
D. Synthetic full
Answer: A

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NO.3 What terminology is used to describe grouping several physical drives into one logical drive?
A. Concatenation
B. Partitioning
C. Formatting
D. Grouping
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the primary reason for having disaster recovery backups?
A. To restore data from an alternate site due to data loss at a primary site
B. To restore data when data loss or logical corruptions occur during routine processing
C. To restore data that was archived for regulatory compliance
D. To restore data when data loss occurs due to minor hardware component failures
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is the role of the storage node in a client/server backup architecture?
A. Writes data to a backup device
B. Gathers data to be backed up
C. Manages the backup operation
D. Writes metadata to the backup catalog
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is the fault tolerance of a RAID 5 array, where n is the number of disks in the array?
A. 1
B. n-1
C. 2
D. n-2
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is the process of moving data from one storage medium to another?
A. Cloning
B. Replication
C. Staging
D. Twinning
Answer: C

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NO.8 What is recovery point objective?
A. Maximum allowable time to fully recover an application
B. Actual time that it takes to recover all data
C. Amount of data loss that is acceptable by the business
D. Length of time that backups are kept for recovery purposes
Answer: C

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NO.9 What are the components of a Logical Volume Manager (LVM)?
A. Physical volumes, volume groups, logical volumes
B. Physical groups, volume groups, logical volumes
C. Physical groups, volume groups, logical groups
D. Physical blocks, volume groups, logical groups
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which type of backup should be used to create a backup copy offline without disrupting I/O operations
on a production volume?
A. Cumulative backup
B. Incremental backup
C. Full backup
D. Synthetic full backup
Answer: D

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NO.11 What is the interval of time between the creation and expiration of the backup called?
A. Retention period
B. Recovery point objective (RPO)
C. Recovery time objective (RTO)
D. Backup window
Answer: A

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NO.12 A business has a recovery point objective (RPO) of nine hours. What does this RPO mean in the event
of a disaster?
A. No more than nine hours of production data can be lost
B. Restore from backup must occur within nine hours
C. Production must be resumed within nine hours
D. A backup copy of the production data must be obtained within nine hours
Answer: A

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NO.13 A full backup of a file system is performed once a week on Saturday and cumulative backups are
performed on all other days. Backups start at 20:00 with a two-hour window. Data on the file system
changes every day.
How many backups are required to perform a full system restore as of Friday morning?
A. 2
B. 6
C. 1
D. 7
Answer: A

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NO.14 A customer is moving data from a backup disk to tape, which will later will be stored offsite.
What is this process called?
A. Cloning
B. Staging
C. Aging
D. Mirroring
Answer: B

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NO.15 A customer has a requirement to restore operations within two hours after a disaster.
What is this time period called?
A. Recovery time objective (RTO)
B. Retention period
C. Recovery point objective (RPO)
D. Backup window
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which software component of a backup application sends media metadata to the backup server?
A. Storage node
B. Client
C. NetWorker Management Console
D. Application server
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which disk connectivity option supports the highest data transfer rate?
A. SATA
B. SCSI
C. IDE
D. ATA
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which statement defines retention period?
A. Amount of time available for restoring a particular version of a backup dataset
B. Amount of time available for overwriting a volume containing backups
C. Period of time in which a backup must be restored
D. Amount of time allocated for full system recovery
Answer: A

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NO.19 What is a benefit of deploying a separate storage node in the backup environment?
A. Reduced number of backups
B. Increased media utilization
C. Improved security and access control
D. Consolidate backup servers
Answer: D

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NO.20 What is an example of a PCI connection?
A. Parallel interface between a disk and the controller card
B. Interconnection between a CPU and network card
C. Serial connection between a disk and the controller card
D. Interconnection between a tape drive and a computer
Answer: B

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Exam Code: E20-326
Exam Name: EMC (Symmetrix Solutions Design Exam)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 132 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 You are designing a new VMAX array. The customer requires high performance for their random
write-intensive application. Which RAID protection should you recommend?
A. RAID-5
B. RAID-6
C. RAID-1
D. RAID-S
Answer: C

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NO.2 A major telecommunications operator is planning to consolidate multiple mid-tier storage arrays to a
single Symmetrix VMAX solution. Their existing environment includes IBM AIX servers, HP-UX Servers
and Windows 2003 Servers.
When documenting the existing Server environment, which command can be used on the AIX Servers, to
list the software modules installed?
A. pkginfo
B. lslpp
C. swlist
D. cfgmgr
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is a best practice when configuring a Symmetrix VMAX for optimal performance and cost?
A. Different drive types are mixed and spread throughout the array.
B. Dedicated engines have appropriate drive types to meet application needs.
C. A dedicated array with Enterprise Flash Drives (EFD).
D. A dedicated array based upon application requirement.
Answer: A

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NO.4 You are proposing a new VMAX array with FAST VP. The customer reports their application needs a
small amount of EFD capacity and asks whether 200 GB EFDs or 400 GB EFDs would provide better
overall performance. Which drive size do you recommend and why?
A. 400 GB EFDs. They support higher IOPS than 200 GB EFDs.
B. 200 GB EFDs. They support higher I/O density than 400 GB EFDs.
C. 400 GB EFDs. They support higher I/O density than 200 GB EFDs.
D. 200 GB EFDs. They support higher IOPS than 400 GB EFDs.
Answer: B

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NO.5 A customer will migrate existing AIX, HP-UX and Windows hosts from a DMX-3 to a new VMAX array.
You need performance data from the existing array to design to the new VMAX volumes configuration
layout. Which tools can be used to collect Symmetrix array performance data?
A. ControlCenter Performance Manager and STP Collector
B. EMC Workload Generator and STP Navigator
C. Storage Configuration Advisor and STP Collector
D. ControlCenter Performance Manager and SymmMerge
Answer: A

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NO.6 You are designing a new disaster recovery solution with VMAX arrays. During the initial project kick-off
meeting, the customer reports their environment can tolerate five minutes or less of data recovery
following a disaster but have not yet determined the maximum allowable downtime for their applications.
The customer asks which remote replication methods you recommend for their environment.
What do you recommend?
A. Defer making a recommendation until the application RTO is known.
B. Recommend the disaster recovery solution as described in the Sales Order.
C. Defer making a recommendation until the application RPO in known.
D. Recommend the disaster recovery solution described in the Statement of Work.
Answer: A

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NO.7 A customer is interested in utilizing SRDF/AR to generate a remote copy of an application with an RPO
of six hours. In order for you to calculate the bandwidth requirements you will need to run Change Tracker.
To which should you set the reset interval length for DeltaMark?
A. 21600
B. 86400
C. 32400
D. 10800
Answer: D

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NO.8 A customer plans to migrate existing AIX, HP-UX and IBM iSeries hosts to a new VMAX array.
Performance data is needed to design the VMAX volumes configuration layout.
What host performance data do you request from the customer?
A. IOSTAT, SAR, WRKDSKSTS
B. STP, Perfmon, SMF/CMF
C. IOSTAT, STP, WRKDSKSTS
D. Perfmon, SAR, SMF/CMF
Answer: A

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NO.9 You are designing a new disaster recovery solution with VMAX arrays. During the initial project kick-off
meeting, the customer reports the maximum allowable downtime for their applications is ninety minutes,
but they have not yet determined how much data recovery following a disaster their environment can
tolerate.
The customer asks which remote replication method you recommend for their environment.
What do you recommend.?
A. Defer making a recommendation until the application RPO in known.
B. Recommend the disaster recovery solution as described in the Sales Order.
C. Defer making a recommendation until the application RTO is known.
D. Recommend the disaster recovery solution described in the Statement of Work.
Answer: A

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NO.10 A customer is interested in utilizing TimeFinder/Snap to generate a backup copy of an application
every six hours. In order for you to calculate the SAVE Pool requirements you will need to run Change
Tracker. To which value should you set the reset interval length for DeltaMark?
A. 21600
B. 10800
C. 86400
D. 32400
Answer: A

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NO.11 A customer plans to migrate existing AIX and Windows hosts as well as Mainframe z/OS LPARs to a
new VMAX array. Performance data is needed to design the VMAX volumes configuration layout. Which
host performance data do you request from the customer?
A. STP, SAR, WRKDSKSTS
B. SAR, Perfmon, WRKDSKSTS
C. IOSTAT, Perfmon, SMF/CMF
D. IOSTAT, SAR, SMF/CMF
Answer: C

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NO.12 A TimeFinder/Snap of production data must be recreated in a two hour cycle throughout the day.
Which change tracker report will provide the best data for modeling a solution for the twenty-four hour
period?
A. Delta report reset every two hours
B. SUM report over two hours
C. Delta report reset every twenty four hours
D. SUM report over twenty four hours
Answer: A

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NO.13 A TimeFinder/Snap of production data must be recreated in a four hour cycle throughout the day.
Which change tracker report will provide the best data for modeling a solution for the twenty-four hour
period?
A. Delta report reset every four hours
B. SUM report over four hours
C. Delta report reset every twenty four hours
D. SUM report over twenty four hours
Answer: A

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NO.14 You are designing a new VMAX array. The customer's primary concern is maximizing capacity
available to the host. What RAID protection should you recommend?
A. RAID-5 (7+1)
B. RAID-6 (6+2)
C. RAID-1/0
D. RAID-5 (3+1)
Answer: A

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NO.15 A major telecommunications operator is planning to consolidate multiple mid-tier storage arrays to a
single Symmetrix VMAX solution. Their existing environment includes IBM AIX servers, HP-UX Servers
and Windows 2003 Servers.
When documenting the existing Server environment, which command can be used on the HP-UX Servers,
to list the software modules installed?
A. swlist
B. lslpp
C. pkginfo
D. pkgchk
Answer: A

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NO.16 Prior to starting an implementation, which tool should be used to automate the data collection on a
Windows host?
A. EMCGrab
B. EMCReports
C. E-Lab Advisor
D. Change Tracker
Answer: B

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NO.17 A Symmetrix VMAX hosts four applications. Each application is assigned a named dynamic cache
partition. Two of the partitions are static and two are flexible. The write pending limit for each partition is
set to 60%.
What will happen if an application running in a flexible partition reaches the write pending limit set for that
partition?
A. Host write activity to that partition will be throttled
B. Cache will be borrowed from the other flexible partition
C. Cache will be borrowed from the default partition
D. The write pending limit of the partition will be raised until it reaches 80%
Answer: A

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NO.18 A Symmetrix VMAX has been configured with Dynamic Cache Partitions.
What is a criterion that must be met for a cache slot to be eligible for donation?
A. The fall through time must be greater than the donation age
B. The fall through time must be less than the donation age
C. The cache slot must belong to a static partition
D. There must be available cache slots in the default partition
Answer: A

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NO.19 A Symmetrix VMAX hosts four applications. Each application is assigned a named dynamic cache
partition. Two of the partitions are static and two are flexible. The write pending limit for each partition is
set to 60%.
What will happen if an application running in a static partition reaches the write pending limit set for that
partition?
A. Cache will be borrowed from a flexible partition
B. Cache will be borrowed from the default partition
C. Host write activity to that partition will be throttled
D. The write pending limit of the partition will be raised until it reaches 80%
Answer: C

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NO.20 Prior to starting an implementation, which tool should be used to automate the data collection on a UNIX
host?
A. EMCGrab
B. EMCReports
C. E-Lab Advisor
D. Change Tracker
Answer: A

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Exam Code: E20-814
Exam Name: EMC (Symmetrix Solutions Expert Exam for Storage Administrators)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 116 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 A company uses VMware ESXi servers and EMC Symmetrix VMAX storage arrays. The storage
administrators use the VMware vSphere client on their Microsoft Windows desktops to manage
the environment. They would like to use the EMC Virtual Storage Integrator Path Management
plug-in.
Which path management activities will this plug-in allow?
A. Set multi-pathing policy for all Symmetrix devices
B. Set multi-pathing policy for individual Symmetrix devices
C. Change the multi-pathing ownership of all Symmetrix devices from NMP to PowerPath/VE
D. Change the multi-pathing ownership of individual Symmetrix devices from NMP to
PowerPath/VE
Answer: A

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NO.2 A company is planning to migrate their Oracle database to EMC Symmetrix VMAX to support
decision support system applications. They would like design guidelines to overcome the existing
performance bottlenecks.
What is the key design guideline?
A. Redo logs and archive logs on separate spindles with RAID 5 protection
B. Redo logs and archive logs on the same spindles RAID 5 protection
C. Redo logs and archive logs on the same spindles with RAID 1 protection
D. Redo logs and archive logs on separate spindles with RAID 1 protection
Answer: D

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NO.3 A company uses EMC Symmetrix VMAX storage for their VMware vSphere environment. They
intend to use SRDF/S for disaster recovery.
What is a consideration when mounting datastores on the remote site after a failover?
A. Keep the existing signature on the replica datastore
B. Assign a new signature to the replica datastore
C. Replica datastore must be mounted as read only
D. Original datastore must be unmounted before the replica datastore can be mounted
Answer: A

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NO.4 A company has a vSphere environment consisting of eight ESXi hosts. Each host is running
EMC
PowerPath/VE and is connected to multiple FA ports on their Symmetrix. PowerPath/VE will not
claim the disk devices presented by their storage array even though the devices are seen by the
hosts.
What is the most likely solution?
A. Configure and register the PowerPath/VE license file
B. Check LUN masking on the array
C. Change the PowerPath/VE failover policy to Symopt
D. Uninstall and reinstall PowerPath/VE
Answer: A

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NO.5 A company has activated a consistent clone replica of an Oracle database using hot backup
mode
on February 26th. The Oracle instance continues to run until March 6th. On March 7th, the
company realizes that an application problem occurred on February 28th.
What is the most recent point to which the database can be recovered?
A. February 26th
B. February 28th
C. March 6th
D. March 7th
Answer: B

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NO.6 SRDF/EDP is running in Adaptive Copy Disk mode from the source (R1) site to the secondary
(R21) site. Which SRDF mode is permitted between the R21 and the R2 sites?
A. Adaptive Copy Write Pending
B. Adaptive Copy Disk
C. Synchronous
D. Semi-synchronous
Answer: A

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NO.7 An Oracle ASM disk group consists of two 50 GB LUNs and is currently in use. The Oracle
database requires more storage space and has two 100 GB LUNs available.
What is the recommended way to organize ASM disk groups to make use of additional space?
A. Create a new disk group containing two 100 GB LUNs
B. Extend the current disk group to include the two 100 GB LUNs
C. Create two new disk groups containing one 100 GB LUN each
D. Double the disk group size by extending with one 100 GB LUN
Answer: A

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NO.8 A company's administrator has implemented Symmetrix Access Control. The motherboard in
the
UNIX host with ADMIN privileges was replaced. After this change, the administrator was unable to
issue any Symmetrix Management commands.
What is the next step the administrator should take?
A. Regenerate the Unique ID
B. Reboot the UNIX host
C. Reset the Access Control database
D. Reinstall Solutions Enabler
Answer: A

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NO.9 All applications running on an EMC Symmetrix VMAX array are experiencing poor
performance.
The environment is characterized by:
Dissimilar workloads
Inefficient resource utilization
Service levels not being met
What can be done to guarantee service levels of business critical applications?
A. Implement dynamic cache partitioning
B. Balance throughput across ports
C. Re-map devices to evenly map the workload
D. Provision new storage for applications
Answer: A

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NO.10 Storage administrators for an EMC Symmetrix VMAX need to increase allocated storage for
Microsoft Exchange LUNs without interrupting its operation. Performing a virtual LUN migration
causes a critical nightly clone operation to run for hours instead of minutes. This impacts later
dependent jobs, preventing production operations from completing.
How can this impact to the nightly process be minimized?
A. Set a QoS value of 8 for MIR Copy Pace
B. Set a QoS value of 0 for MIR Copy Pace
C. Set SPC value of 1 on the Exchange LUNs
D. Set SPC value of 8 on the clone LUNs
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 312-50
Exam Name: EC-COUNCIL (Ethical Hacker Certified)
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NO.1 Snort has been used to capture packets on the network. On studying the packets, the
penetration tester finds it to be abnormal. If you were the penetration tester, why
would you find this abnormal?
(Note: The student is being tested on concept learnt during passive OS
fingerprinting, basic TCP/IP connection concepts and the ability to read packet
signatures from a sniff dumo.)
05/20-17:06:45.061034 192.160.13.4:31337 -> 172.16.1.101:1
TCP TTL:44 TOS:0x10 ID:242
***FRP** Seq: 0XA1D95 Ack: 0x53 Win: 0x400
...
05/20-17:06:58.685879 192.160.13.4:31337 ->
172.16.1.101:1024
TCP TTL:44 TOS:0x10 ID:242
***FRP** Seg: 0XA1D95 Ack: 0x53 Win: 0x400
What is odd about this attack? (Choose the most appropriate statement)
A. This is not a spoofed packet as the IP stack has increasing numbers for the three flags.
B. This is back orifice activity as the scan comes from port 31337.
C. The attacker wants to avoid creating a sub-carrier connection that is not normally
valid.
D. There packets were created by a tool; they were not created by a standard IP stack.
Answer: B

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NO.2 How does Traceroute map the route that a packet travels from point A to point B?
A. It uses a TCP Timestamp packet that will elicit a time exceed in transit message.
B. It uses a protocol that will be rejected at the gateways on its way to its destination.
C. It manipulates the value of time to live (TTL) parameter packet to elicit a time
exceeded in transit message.
D. It manipulated flags within packets to force gateways into generating error messages.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is "Hacktivism"?
A. Hacking for a cause
B. Hacking ruthlessly
C. An association which groups activists
D. None of the above
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following tools are used for footprinting?(Choose four.
A. Sam Spade
B. NSLookup
C. Traceroute
D. Neotrace
E. Cheops
Answer: A, B, C, D

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NO.5 Who is an Ethical Hacker?
A. A person whohacksfor ethical reasons
B. A person whohacksfor an ethical cause
C. A person whohacksfor defensive purposes
D. A person whohacksfor offensive purposes
Answer: C

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NO.6 A Certkiller security System Administrator is reviewing the network system log files.
He notes the following:
- Network log files are at 5 MB at 12:00 noon.
-At 14:00 hours, the log files at 3 MB.
What should he assume has happened and what should he do about the situation?
A. He should contact the attacker's ISP as soon as possible and have the connection
disconnected.
B. He should log the event as suspicious activity, continue to investigate, and take further
steps according to site security policy.
C. He should log the file size, and archive the information, because the router crashed.
D. He should run a file system check, because the Syslog server has a self correcting file
system problem.
E. He should disconnect from the Internet discontinue any further unauthorized use,
because an attack has taken place.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Where should a security tester be looking for information that could be used by an
attacker against an organization? (Select all that apply)
A. CHAT rooms
B. WHOIS database
C. News groups
D. Web sites
E. Search engines
F. Organization's own web site
Answer: A, B, C, D, E, F

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NO.8 Which of the following activities will NOT be considered as passive footprinting?
A. Go through the rubbish to find out any information that might have been discarded.
B. Search on financial site such as Yahoo Financial to identify assets.
C. Scan the range of IP address found in the target DNS database.
D. Perform multiples queries using a search engine.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which one of the following is defined as the process of distributing incorrect
Internet Protocol (IP) addresses/names with the intent of diverting traffic?
A. Network aliasing
B. Domain Name Server (DNS) poisoning
C. Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
D. Port scanning
Answer: B

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NO.10 A very useful resource for passively gathering information about a target company
is:
A. Host scanning
B. Whois search
C. Traceroute
D. Ping sweep
Answer: B

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NO.11 User which Federal Statutes does FBI investigate for computer crimes involving
e-mail scams and mail fraud?
A. 18 U.S.C 1029 Possession of Access Devices
B. 18 U.S.C 1030 Fraud and related activity in connection with computers
C. 18 U.S.C 1343 Fraud by wire, radio or television
D. 18 U.S.C 1361 Injury to Government Property
E. 18 U.S.C 1362 Government communication systems
F. 18 U.S.C 1831 Economic Espionage Act
G. 18 U.S.C 1832 Trade Secrets Act
Answer: B

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NO.12 What is the essential difference between an 'Ethical Hacker' and a 'Cracker'?
A. The ethical hacker does not use the same techniques or skills as a cracker.
B. The ethical hacker does it strictly for financial motives unlike a cracker.
C. The ethical hacker has authorization from the owner of the target.
D. The ethical hacker is just a cracker who is getting paid.
Answer: C

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NO.13 You are footprinting Acme.com to gather competitive intelligence. You visit the
acme.com websire for contact information and telephone number numbers but do
not find it listed there. You know that they had the entire staff directory listed on
their website 12 months ago but now it is not there. How would it be possible for you
to retrieve information from the website that is outdated?
A. Visit google search engine and view the cached copy.
B. Visit Archive.org site to retrieve the Internet archive of the acme website.
C. Crawl the entire website and store them into your computer.
D. Visit the company's partners and customers website for this information.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Your Certkiller trainee Sandra asks you which are the four existing Regional
Internet Registry (RIR's)?
A. APNIC, PICNIC, ARIN, LACNIC
B. RIPE NCC, LACNIC, ARIN, APNIC
C. RIPE NCC, NANIC, ARIN, APNIC
D. RIPE NCC, ARIN, APNIC, LATNIC
Answer: B

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NO.15 According to the CEH methodology, what is the next step to be performed after
footprinting?
A. Enumeration
B. Scanning
C. System Hacking
D. Social Engineering
E. Expanding Influence
Answer: B

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NO.16 What does the term "Ethical Hacking" mean?
A. Someone who is hacking for ethical reasons.
B. Someone who is using his/her skills for ethical reasons.
C. Someone who is using his/her skills for defensive purposes.
D. Someone who is using his/her skills for offensive purposes.
Answer: C

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NO.17 You are footprinting an organization to gather competitive intelligence. You visit
the company's website for contact information and telephone numbers but do not
find it listed there. You know that they had the entire staff directory listed on their
website 12 months ago but not it is not there.
How would it be possible for you to retrieve information from the website that is
outdated?
A. Visit google's search engine and view the cached copy.
B. Visit Archive.org web site to retrieve the Internet archive of the company's website.
C. Crawl the entire website and store them into your computer.
D. Visit the company's partners and customers website for this information.
Answer: B

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NO.18 To what does "message repudiation" refer to what concept in the realm of email
security?
A. Message repudiation means a user can validate which mail server or servers a message
was passed through.
B. Message repudiation means a user can claim damages for a mail message that
damaged their reputation.
C. Message repudiation means a recipient can be sure that a message was sent from a
particular person.
D. Message repudiation means a recipient can be sure that a message was sent from a
certain host.
E. Message repudiation means a sender can claim they did not actually send a particular
message.
Answer: E

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NO.19 What are the two basic types of attacks?(Choose two.
A. DoS
B. Passive
C. Sniffing
D. Active
E. Cracking
Answer: B, D

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NO.20 You receive an email with the following message:
Hello Steve,
We are having technical difficulty in restoring user database record after the recent
blackout. Your account data is corrupted. Please logon to the SuperEmailServices.com
and change your password.
http://www.supermailservices.com@0xde.0xad.0xbe.0xef/support/logon.htm
If you do not reset your password within 7 days, your account will be permanently
disabled locking you out from our e-mail services.
Sincerely,
Technical Support
SuperEmailServices
From this e-mail you suspect that this message was sent by some hacker since you
have been using their e-mail services for the last 2 years and they have never sent
out an e-mail such as this. You also observe the URL in the message and confirm
your suspicion about 0xde.0xad.0xbde.0xef which looks like hexadecimal numbers.
You immediately enter the following at Windows 2000 command prompt:
Ping0xde.0xad.0xbe.0xef
You get a response with a valid IP address.
What is the obstructed IP address in the e-mail URL?
A. 222.173.190.239
B. 233.34.45.64
C. 54.23.56.55
D. 199.223.23.45
Answer: A

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NO.1 Networks are vulnerable to an attack which occurs due to overextension of bandwidth,
bottlenecks, network data interception, etc.
Which of the following network attacks refers to a process in which an attacker changes his or her
IP address so that he or she appears to be someone else?
A. IP address spoofing
B. Man-in-the-middle attack
C. Denial of Service attack
D. Session sniffing
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following Wi-Fi chalking methods refers to drawing symbols in public places to
advertise open Wi-Fi networks?
A. WarWalking
B. WarFlying
C. WarChalking
D. WarDhving
Answer: C

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NO.3 Computer forensics report provides detailed information on complete computer forensics
investigation process. It should explain how the incident occurred, provide technical details of the
incident and should be clear to understand. Which of the following attributes of a forensics report
can render it inadmissible in a court of law?
A. It includes metadata about the incident
B. It includes relevant extracts referred to In the report that support analysis or conclusions
C. It is based on logical assumptions about the incident timeline
D. It maintains a single document style throughout the text
Answer: C

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NO.4 When collecting electronic evidence at the crime scene, the collection should proceed from
the
most volatile to the least volatile
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following statements is not a part of securing and evaluating electronic crime
scene
checklist?
A. Locate and help the victim
B. Transmit additional flash messages to other responding units
C. Request additional help at the scene if needed
D. Blog about the incident on the internet
Answer: D

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NO.1 The Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) the ASCII text standard to format its messages. The H.323
protocol uses ASN.1 binary code. Which layer of the OSI/RM is responsible for translating, processing
and reading ASN.1 and ASCII messages?
A.Network
B.Session
C.Physical
D.Presentation
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following is a concern when implementing IPsec for SIP-based voice calls behind a
firewall that implements Network Address Translation (NAT)?
A.IPsec doesn't natively support SIP.
B.Encryption causes increased overhead.
C.You must implement tunnel mode using the AH security protocol.
D.You must implement transport mode using the AH security protocol.
Answer: B

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NO.3 In which of the following layers of the OSI/RM would you find the Session Initiation Protocol (SIP)?
A.Network
B.Physical
C.Session
D.Application
Answer: D

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NO.4 Consider the following image of a Media Access Control (MAC) address:QV12116bY$X%&,*+
Which of the following describes the portion designated by letter A?
A.The 48 bit ID code, known as the Mac-48.
B.The 48 bit ID code, known as the EUI-48.
C.The 24 bit vendor code, known as the Organizationally Unique Identifier (OUI)
D.The 64 bit interface serial number, known as the known as the Organizationally Unique Identifier (OUI).
Answer: C

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NO.5 You have been asked to recommend an appropriate network bandwidth for a medium to large business.
This business will use it for their IP phones, as well as their data connection. Which of the following would
you recommend?
A.DS0
B.DS1
C.ISDN BRI
D.ISDN PRI
Answer: D

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NO.6 You are helping design an SIP implementation for an existing network. Which of the following is the
most important element to verify?
A.Whether or not the company uses fire-grade cabling.
B.Whether or not the company has implemented QoS.
C.Whether or not the company Web server supports SSL.
D.Whether or not the company layer 2 switches have fault tolerance in place.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following describes how the host portion of IPv4 and IPv6 addresses are created?
A.All IPv4 and Ipv6 host addresses are determined by ICANN.
B.All IPv4 and IPv6 host addresses are based on the host's MAC address.
C.The host portion of an IPv4 address is determined by ICANN. The host portion of an IPv6 address is
determined according to the multicast address.
D.The host portion of an IPv4 address is determined arbitrarily according to the value of the subnet mask.
The host portion of an IPv6 address is determined from the host's MAC address.
Answer: D

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NO.8 When data is sent down to the Session layer of the OSI/RM the PDU consists of which encapsulated
components?
A.Physical header, Network header, Data
B. Data, Application header, Presentation header
C.Network header, Data Link header, Physical header
D.Application header, Presentation header, Transport header
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which protocol does is generally used to establish calls in SIP implementations?
A.TCP
B.UDP
C.RTP
D.H.225
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following is the correct ordering of protocol data units, starting from Layer 1 of the
OSI/RM to Layer 7?
A.Packet, data, frame, bits
B.Bits, frame, data, packet
C.Data, segment, packet, frame
D.Frame, packet, segment, data
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of the following devices operates at Layer 2 of the OSI/RM and is considered the ideal device
for creating a new broadcast domain for a voice device?
A.Hub
B.Bridge
C.Router
D.Switch
Answer: D

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NO.12 Your customer has asked you to enable fax messages to be delivered to her computer so she can read
it in her e-mail. Which protocol should you implement on your convergence device?
A.T.30
B.T.34
C.T.37
D.T.38
Answer: C

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NO.13 You have decided to use the following range of IP addresses:
172.16.0.0/24
Which of the following will allow you to avoid deploying NAT traversal workarounds?
A.Deploy a STUN server.
B.Deploy a Session Border Controller (SBC).
C.Use registered IP addresses for all devices.
D.Use the default subnet mask for your IP address range.
Answer: C

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NO.14 You have implemented DiffServ to describe a collection of service policies that determine how your
network equipment will classify and condition voice data in a traffic flow scheme. What is the accepted
name for this group?
A.Class
B.Group
C.VLAN
D.Domain
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which of the following connects the Foreign Exchange Station (FXS) portion of an Analog Telephone
Adapter (ATA) to an analog phone?
A.USB connector.
B.RJ-11 connector.
C.RJ-45 connector.
D.RS-232 connector.
Answer: B

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NO.16 You have been given the following in CIDR notation: 152.2.100.1/25. How many subnets can you
create, and how many IP addresses can each subnet have?
A.55 subnets, with 1024 addresses per subnet
B.126 subnets, with 512 addresses per subnet
C.128 subnets, with 126 addresses per subnet
D.1024 subnets, with 55 addresses per subnet
Answer: C

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NO.17 When a technician connects a North American T-1 trunk to a European E-1 trunk using a conversion
device, which of the following will result?
A.No less than 80% of the T-1 can be used.
B.No more than 80% of the E-1 trunk can be used.
C.No connection can be made between E-1 and T-1.
D.The connection will fail, because E-1 uses out-of-band transmission, and T-1 lines use in-band
transmission.
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which of the following must be used by both an 802.11i Wi-fi card and a IP-enabled PBX network
adapter?
A.A Virtual LAN Identifier (VID).
B.A Secure Set Identifier (SSID) entry.
C.A Media Access Control (MAC) address.
D.A Canonical Format Indicator (CFI) entry.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which of the following best describes what occurs to a protocol data unit as information passes from
layer 1 to layer 7?
A.Each layer reads all remaining protocol data units and adds information specific to that layer.
B. Each layer reads all remaining protocol data units and determines how to route the packet.
C.As data units are passed up the protocol stack, each layer removes information relevant to the function
of that layer.
D.As data units are passed down the protocol stack, each layer adds information appropriate to the
function of that layer.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which of the following is most likely to be used to identify a device to be called in a hunt group?
A.A Virtual LAN Identifier (VID).
B.A Secure Set Identifier (SSID) entry.
C.A Canonical Format Indicator (CFI) entry.
D.A Media Access Control (MAC) address.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: RF0-001
Exam Name: CompTIA (RFID+ Certification)
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Total Q&A: 162 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 All of the following are true of widely implemented "slap and ship" programs EXCEPT they:
A. make it difficult to optimize label application for the container.
B. are more susceptible to electrostatic discharge (ESD) than in-line automatic applicators.
C. are lower in cost than application in manufacturing.
D. are more likely to break the bond between the antenna and the chip.
Answer: C

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NO.2 RFID media should be stored in:
A. electrostatic discharge (ESD) protected packaging.
B. metal containers.
C. rolls of ten.
D. the order that it was received.
Answer: A

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NO.3 A new batch of tags is received for an existing system. When the new tags are introduced into the
system, the interrogation zones stop transmitting tag data. Which of the following is MOST likely the
source of the problem?
A. The new tags are all bad.
B. The new tags are the wrong type for the system.
C. A tag virus has been introduced by the new tags.
D. The interrogators have issued the kill command to the tags.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Desktop industrial RFID-enabled bar code printers handle an inoperative tag by:
A. sending an error to the host.
B. printing 'void' or some other marking on the label.
C. ejecting the label.
D. ignoring it and continuing.
Answer: B

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NO.5 While troubleshooting an interrogation zone, a technician discovers that the antenna wires have torn
free of their connectors. Which of the following would be the FIRST step for the technician to take?
A. Secure the cables so they cannot tear free again.
B. Crimp a new end on the cable.
C. Power down the interrogator.
D. Attach the repaired cable to the antenna.
Answer: C

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NO.6 In a facility with several automated print and apply printers, cases frequently get to the palletizer without
RFID labels. One way to correct this is to:
A. install an interrogation zone down stream from the labeler with a reject system.
B. have an interrogator on the palletizer.
C. use better quality labels.
D. use a hand-held interrogator to scan for missing labels at end of production line.
Answer: A

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NO.7 An Electronic Product Code (EPC) Class 1 Gen 2 RFID system reads the EPC data from memory bank
zero, but the 64-bit EPC code is always zero. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of the
problem?
A. The EPC code is stored in Bank 1.
B. The tag has been killed.
C. The EPC code was never written to the tag.
D. The access password is zero.
Answer: A

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NO.8 When firmware upgrades become available, which of the following should the technician consider
FIRST?
A. How to install the upgrade.
B. When to schedule the upgrade.
C. Whether the upgrade can be downloaded from the internet.
D. The benefits of new upgrade.
Answer: D

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NO.9 It is important to know where an RFID inlay is located within a tag during printing because: (Select
TWO).
A. the inlay location directs the printer to print landscape or portrait.
B. the inlay sets the speed of the printer.
C. printing over the chip may cause damage.
D. timing from leading edge is critical to the encoding process.
Answer: CD

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NO.10 Which of the following materials have absorptive properties in relation to ultra high frequency (UHF)?
(Select TWO).
A. Damp cardboard
B. Glass
C. Conductive liquids
D. Metal
Answer: AC

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NO.11 A company wants to track personnel using RFID with a resolution within 10 feet (3.1 meters). Which of
the following RFID systems would provide the BEST results?
A. Active Real Time Locating System (RTLS)
B. Passive ultra high frequency (UHF) RFID system with hand-held interrogators
C. Passive high frequency (HF) RFID system with interrogators at entry points
D. Global Positioning System (GPS)
Answer: A

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NO.12 Ideally, as a tag passes though the antenna read window it should be:
A. inside metal foil.
B. on the same plane as the antenna.
C. at least 30 feet (9.3 meters) from the antenna.
D. facing away from antenna.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Loss of connection between an interrogator and the edgeware/middleware would result in which of the
following?
A. Only active RFID tag data would be processed.
B. No tag data would be processed.
C. Tag data would be sent directly to the Warehouse Management System (WMS).
D. Only interrogator status would be tracked.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which of the following technologies would provide the BEST read range when attached to a
corrugated metal freight container that is 40 feet (12.4 meters)?
A. Passive 13.56 MHz from a one watt interrogator/antenna
B. Passive 860 - 960 MHz from a 4 watt interrogator/antenna C. Active 433.92 MHz, operating at 10 mW
D. Active 2450 MHz, operating at 10 mW
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which of the following conditions would be MOST likely to cause a ghost tag read?
A. The interrogator did not pass electronic product code (EPC) compliance testing.
B. There is a broken strap between the chip and the antenna on the tag.
C. There are too many tags within an interrogator zone.
D. There is RF interference in an interrogator zone.
Answer: D

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NO.16 When troubleshooting an interrogation zone, an operator observes that the interrogator is not
responding to external input or reading tags. The lights are on indicating it has power and network
connectivity. Which of the following would be the next step for the operator to take?
A. Replace the antenna cable.
B. Replace the interrogator.
C. Reboot the interrogator.
D. Reboot the antenna.
Answer: C

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NO.17 For a corrugated case filled with liquor bottles containing metal lids, all of the following locations are
acceptable for optimizing the performance of a passive high frequency (HF) RFID smart label EXCEPT on
the: (Select TWO).
A. side near the bottom where there is the most amount of liquid.
B. side near the top where there is the least amount of liquid.
C. bottom where there is the most amount of glass.
D. top near the metal lids.
Answer: AD

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NO.18 Tags placed on small boxes uniformly stacked on a pallet are unreadable unless the pallet is rotated.
This is a symptom of tag:
A. propagation.
B. size.
C. shadowing.
D. polarity.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Cases are going to be tagged and stored in a humid, high temperature area. Which of the following
types of labels would be needed?
A. Poly-coated with gum adhesive.
B. Direct thermal with gum adhesive.
C. Poly-coated with water base adhesive.
D. Paper with gum adhesive.
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which of the following RFID tags would be BEST for inconspicuous tagging of assets containing a
maximum of eight bytes of data and are inductively coupled?
A. Active 433.92 MHz tag with strategically installed fixed interrogators.
B. Passive 13.56 MHz tag that is affixed to the asset and camouflaged requiring continuous loop
interrogation.
C. Passive Gen 2 tag requiring line of sight backscatter interrogation.
D. Active 433.92 MHz tag requiring modulated backscatter interrogation.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: EK0-001
Exam Name: CompTIA (E-Biz+)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 138 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 .Which of the following is not a lesson learned from e-tailing?
A. Maintaining marginal profits on each sale.
B. Make sure your website performs well.
C. Establish branding whenever possible.
D. Focus on market share.
Answer: D

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NO.2 What differentiates client/server applications from other types of
applications?
A. A telnet session to a web server.
B. Processing is divided between the requested and providing applications.
C. Reliance on relational database technology and dumb terminals.
D. Using a workstation to view remote data on a mainframe computer.
Answer: B

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NO.3 .Incremental planning based on short term milestones, which is often used in E-Business, is
called:
A. True return on investment.
B. Trigger-point planning.
C. Trig's event planning.
D. Solid contingency planning.
Answer: B

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NO.4 .What does the term "banner blindness" refer to?
A. The growing trend of adding interactivity to banner advertisement to increase their visibility.
B. The anonymous tracking of banner impressions and browsing behaviors across multiple sites.
C. The refusal of companies to acknowledge banner advertising as a valuable advertising
medium.
D. The growing trend of visitors completely ignoring banner advertisements.
Answer: D

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NO.5 .A new advantage to consumer at click-and-mortar stores is:
A. The ability to use multiple credit cards.
B. Overnight delivery.
C. The ability to return online purchases to brick-and-mortar stored.
D. Longer warrantee periods.
Answer: C

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NO.6 .What are three ways to increase consumer awareness of a Web site? (Choose three)
A. Have links on other Web sites.
B. Submit information about your Web site to search engines.
C. Advertise on traditional media.
D. Utilize a value-added network.
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.7 .You E-Business site suffers from hacker attacks. You want to seek information on the
latest Internet security issues.
Which of the following organizations might provide you with the information?
A. Netscape
B. IANA
C. CERT
D. IEEE
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following is required for enabling SSL on the web server?
A. Shopping Cart Software
B. Digital Certificate
C. Internet Merchant Bank Account
D. Warehouse
E. Web hosting
Answer: B

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NO.9 .What are the three basic components of E-Business trigger-point planning? (Choose three)
A. Business case
B. Application structure
C. Prioritization blueprint
D. Application implementation
Answer: A, C, D

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NO.10 .Which of the following provides a single point of access to network resources in your
E-Business infrastructure for your business partners?
A. Tree
B. Browser
C. Domain
D. Directory service
Answer: D

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NO.11 The Business Service Provider (BSP) is:
A. Internet service developers that rents only its own proprietary applications via the Web.
B. A company that offers packaged software for lease online.
C. A service provider that packages a selection of applications for distribution online.
D. A specialized company that connects customers with PCs and browsers to the Internet.
Answer: B

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NO.12 .Jenny has decided to make her online purchase of DVD movies from a particular retailer
because their site is easy to use and she can order quickly.
What decision criteria is she using?
A. Personal Service
B. Convenience
C. Value Proposition
D. Online Service
Answer: B

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NO.13 .In E-Business, which of the following is the most common element in determining the
pricing strategy for the business?
A. Business financial status
B. Overall business model
C. Product availability
D. Product delivery
Answer: B

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NO.14 .What are three protocols that are part of the TCP/IP suite? (Choose three)
A. File Transfer Protocol (FTP).
B. NetBEUI Protocol.
C. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP).
D. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP).
Answer: A, C, D

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NO.15 .VPNsare most susceptible to what type of attacks?
A. Trojan
B. Sniffing
C. Man in the middle
D. Virus
E. DoS
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which one of the following best describes spamming?
A. Authorized sending of e-mail to business and people who have agreed to receive your
message.
B. Unauthorized receiving of e-mails by businesses and people who have not agreed to receive
your messages.
C. Mail that comes through the post office rather than electronic format.
D. Unauthorized sending of e-mails to businesses and people who have not agreed to receive
your messages.
Answer: D

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NO.17 .A Web site offers daily news content for free, but has banners at the top of each page.
What business model is being used?
A. Store A does not have a physical location and sells a variety of products online.
B. Store B does not have a physical location and sells a specific type of product.
C. Store C has a physical location and a Web site. A variety of products are sold.
D. Store D has a physical location. A variety of products are sold.
Answer: A

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NO.18 .An example of a click and mortar alliance would be a partnership between a(n)
A. Established traditional retailer and a Web community.
B. Web community and a trade association.
C. E-Marketplace and an Application Service Provider.
D. On-line storefront and an Internet Service Provider.
Answer: A

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NO.19 .A collaborative Internet based network to link an enterprise with a specific group of its supplies
or customers is commonly referred to as a(n):
A. Internet
B. Extranet
C. CONet
D. Intranet
Answer: B

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NO.20 .Which of the following is not a lesson learned from e-tailing?
A. Maintaining marginal profits on each sale.
B. Make sure your website performs well.
C. Establish branding whenever possible.
D. Focus on market share.
Answer: D

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