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Exam Code: M2010-616
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Exam Code: C2010-597
Exam Name: IBM TRIRIGA Application Platform V3.2.1 Application Development
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Exam Code: C2040-406
Exam Name: IBM Notes and Domino 9.0 Social Edition System Administration A
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NO.1 What is the process to hide a state transition action from view in a form?
A. Select Secondary Action in the sub actions properties in Form Builder.
B. Deselect Default Display in the state transition properties in Form Builder
C. Select Secondary Action in the state transition properties in Form Builder.
D. Configure Includes/Excludes in the sub actions properties in Form Builder.
Answer: B

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NO.2 In the Data Modeler's Association List what does a red star next to the association indicate?
A. The association is used in a smart section.
B. The association is a dependent association.
C. The association is referenced by a locator field.
D. The association is referenced by a required field.
Answer: B

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NO.3 When a transition occurs to move a record into a tri Active state, the expected behavior is that
the form is in a read-only state. This is not happening. What is the issue with the Read-Only
property?
A. It is not configured in the Sub Action properties.
B. It is not configured in the Form Section properties.
C. It is not configured in the Business Object properties.
D. It is not configured in the State Transition properties for at least one transition.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which statement is true when defining an Include association?
A. The association from the child to the parent must be defined with the child in an editable state.
B. The association from the parent to the child must be defined with the parent in an editable state.
C. The association from the parent to the child must be defined with both the parent and the child
in an editable state.
D. The association from the child to the parent must be defined with both the parent and the child
in an editable state.
Answer: B

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NO.5 An existing portal must be modified so that a new navigation collection will display in the
portal. Assuming that a navigation collection of type Quick Links exists and is populated with
navigation items, what additional new element must be created to display this collection in the
existing portal?
A. Portal
B. Portal Section
C. Navigation Item
D. Navigation Collection
Answer: B

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NO.6 Where are the classifications' hierarchical parents to child associations created?
A. In the Form Builder
B. In the Data Modeler
C. In the Association Manager
D. In the State Family Manager
Answer: B

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NO.7 Several organization records appear in reports but do not appear in the Organization hierarchy.
What should be the first item to validate during the troubleshooting process for the records in
question?
A. verify that the records have the required Primary Organization association to the organization's
root node in the hierarchy
B. verify that the records have forward and reverse association strings of Included In and Includes to
other records in the hierarchy
C. verify that the records have forward and reverse association strings of Is Parent Of and Is Child Of
to other records in the hierarchy
D. verify that the records have forward and reverse association strings of Primary Location and
Primary Location Of to other records in the hierarchy
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which workflow type gets executed by an association of two objects?
A. synchronous workflow using temporary data
B. synchronous workflow using permanent data
C. asynchronous workflow using temporary data
D. asynchronous workflow using permanent data
Answer: D

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Exam Code: C2010-501
Exam Name: IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.5 Infrastructure Implementation
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Exam Code: C2010-538
Exam Name: IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.2.2 Implementation
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NO.1 What should be the determining factor in recommending either IBM WebSphere Application
Server or Oracle WebLogic Server for the J2EE environment?
A. the JDK version and vendor selected for the application environment
B. the customer's existing J2EE environment and portfolio of J2EE applications
C. the amount of RAM required by a given J2EE platform for 64-bit applications
D. the selection of the application database platform and portfolio of database applications
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which design principles should be followed when application clustering is intended to address
fault tolerance in the environment to some level for user interface (UI) session handling?
A. The High Availability (HA) management design should include vertical and horizontal clustering.
The UIsystems should be vertically clustered. The other Java Virtual Machines (JVMs) should be
horizontally clustered.
B. The HA management design should include horizontal clustering with a minimum of 2 systems
and half the total number of UIJVM on each system.
C. The HA management design should have the number of JVMs needed to support the load of the
system from a UIperspective as double what is required and be vertically clustered.
D. The HA management design should have the number of JVMs needed to support the load of the
system from a UIperspective and be able to support the UIload with a single JVM removed.
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is the recommended method to build a Maximo EAR file?
A. runthebuiidear.bat from a command prompt
B. runthebuiidmaximoear.cmd from a command prompt
C. double-click on buiidear.bat from the IBM\SMP\maximo\deployment directory
D. right-click on buildmaximoear.cmd from the IBM\SMP\maximo\deployment\default directory
and run as administrator
Answer: B

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NO.4 Users can create and save their own queries and can share queries with other users. What
should be done in order to reduce the likelihood of queries negatively impacting performance?
A. create efficient default queries
B. periodically truncate the default query table
C. add an Order By clause to inefficient queries
D. remove the text search index on columns called by the query
Answer: A

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NO.5 A user, administrator, is undertaking the installation of a new IBM Maximo Asset Management
V7.5 environment on a Windows 2008 Server. The default installation path will be C:\IBM\SMP .
The installation has stopped and the CTGInstallTraceOO.log indicates that the updateDB failed.
Where is the Updatedb.log located?
A. C:\IBM\SMP\logs
B. C:\IBM\SMP\solutions\logs
C. C:\IBM\SMP\maximo\tools\maximo\log
D. C:\IBM\SMP\maximo\applications\maximo\log
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which system property is used to log SQL statement execution time?
A. mxe.db.SQLRunTirne
B. mxe.db.fetchResultTime
C. mxe.db.logSQLTimeLimit
D. rnxe.db.fetchResultLogLirnit
Answer: C

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NO.7 When enabling Application Server Security in IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.5,which
property value must be set?
A. mxe.encrypted=true
B. mxe.encrypted=false
C. mxe.useAppServerSecurity=1
D. mxe.useAppServerSecurity=0
Answer: C

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NO.8 Regarding the Run Configuration Step screen - which option requires running taskrunner.bat?
A. configure SMTP host
B. deploy application files manually later
C. defer the update of the Maximo database
D. copy files now, perform the configuration step later
Answer: D

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Exam Code: P2090-046
Exam Name: IBM InfoSphere Business Information Exchange Technical Mastery Test v1
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Exam Code: C2010-599
Exam Name: IBM Storage Productivity Center V5.1 Implementation
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NO.1 A customer named Your Company is looking for a new 4-way server with 875 GB internal storage to run
Oracle 91. A competitor presented the customer with a solution that includes Dell PowerEdge 6650. The
xSeries Sales Specialist presented the customer with the IBM Eserver x365. Which of the following
should the xSeries Sales Specialist emphasize as an advantage over the competitor's solution?
A. Easy deployment tools
B. Support for internal tape drive
C. Chipkill memory and Hot Spare Memory
D. Ability to hold six internal hard drives
Answer: D

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NO.2 To best ensure high customer satisfaction and repeat business, the xService Sales Specialist should
stay involved with the customer through which of the following phases of a server deployment?
A. Production Cut-over
B. Hardware Installation
C. Customer Acceptance
D. System Test
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following is the best starting point to recommend to a customer who is interested in
attending education regarding the design, architectures, features, and functions of IBM eSserver xSeries
server?
A. IBM Director Workshop
B. Servicing IBM eServer xSeries Servers
C. IBM eServer xSeries technical Principles
D. Microsoft windows 2000 installation and Performance
Answer: C

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NO.4 A new customer is still unsure about the recent decision they made to go with IBM. The customer did
not have many issues with previous suppliers and knew exactly when and where to go for a service or
support issue. Which of the following should
the xSeries Sales Specialist do early in the implementation cycle to address the customer's uncertainty?
A. Create and present a customer Support plan to the customer
B. Make sure the customer is aware of IBM's electronic customer support options.
C. Provide a home phone number in the event they need someone immediately for a hardware or
technical issue.
D. Provide the appropriate IBM support phone number in the event they need assistance with a service or
technical issue.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Upon placing an order for a customer, an xSeries Sales Specialist finds out that there is an issue with
delivery lead time. Which of the following does the Sales Specialist need to Know in order to escalate with
IBM supply management?
A. SAP number for the order
B. Customer purchase order number
C. Business partner invoice number
D. The serial numbers of the server in QUESTION NO:
Answer: A

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NO.6 A customer named Your Company is reluctant to pursue a 16-way IBM eServer x445 solution because
the server does not look like a "mainframe" The Xseries Sales
Specialist believes the customer may be entertaing another vendor. Who among the following could that
competitor be?
A. HPQ
B. Sun
C. Dell
D. Unisys
Answer: D

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NO.7 A customer named Your Company uses BMC Patrol to manage all the servers in their data center. They
have approached the xSeries Sales Specialist about purchasing some IBM eServer xSeries servers for a
new project. The customer has heard about the IBM Director, but is concerned that this will produce
additional administrative overhead. Which of the following statements will be most useful in addressing
the customer's concern?
A. BMC Patrol is an IBM ServerProven product.
B. A bmc Patrol module is available for IBM Director.
C. The IBM Director Console can be run on the BMC Patrol Server.
D. An upward integration module for BMC Patol is available with IBM Director
Answer: D

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NO.8 A customer named Your Company has invited competitive vendors to discuss a new server farm for an
expanding area of their business. The customer is considering a variety of server types. Including multiple
processor and blade servers. In addition, the new server farm will consist of NAS servers, fiber-based
storage and fiber-based tape devices. Which TWO of the following are reasons for choosing an IBM
solution over the competitors' solutions?
A. Light based diagnostics on servers is exclusive to IBM.
B. IBM is the only vendor that provides Systems Management.
C. Different Service Level Agreements are an exclusive offering from IBM.
D. The IBM Totalstorage portfolio includes NAS, SAN storage and SAN networking products.
E. The IBM server portfolio consists of multiple processor options in tower and rack form factors.
Answer: D,E

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Exam Code: C2010-590
Exam Name: IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3 Implementation
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Exam Code: C2010-940
Exam Name: IBM Tivoli Level 1 Support Tools and Processes
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NO.1 A NetApp filer has multiple volumes defined; some are exported with NFS and some
are exported with
CIFS. What should be considered when the backup will be done with the SnapDiff function of
the
incremental backup?
A. SnapDiff works only with volumes of security style NTFS.
B. The security style of the volume is independent from the kind of backup.
C. Volumes with security style mixed can be backed up with Windows or AIX.
D. Volumes with security style UNIX must be backed up with an AIX or Linux client.
Answer: D

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NO.2 After a holiday weekend, an administrator returns to the office to find there have been
problems with
IBM Tivoli Storage Manager. The activity log is checked and because there are only two days
worth of
logs, the part of the log containing information about when the error occurred is no longer
available.
Which command should be run to ensure that this does not happen again?
A. set logretention 5
B. set actlogretention 5
C. set actlogretention 0
D. set actlogretention 5 mgmtstyle=size
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which application can be used to gather and analyze performance data about backup
and restore
operations for an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager client?
A. Information Center
B. Administration Center
C. Tivoli Data Warehouse
D. IBM Tivoli Enterprise Console
Answer: B

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NO.4 The dsmicf gx utility was used to install and configure a new IBM Tivoli Storage
Manager V6.3 (TSM)
Server instance. During the installation process a problem occurred. The configuration
process must be
restarted. Which command removes the created TSM database?
A. db2 drop TSMDB1
B. db2 list db directory
C. dsmserv removedb TSMDB1
D. dsmserv db remove TSMDB1
Answer: C

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NO.5 During the backup of a network attached storage filer this error occurred:
The table of contents cannot be created (ANR1110E).
The backup node command was included in a server script and has the option toc=yes. What
is the
reason for the error?
A. The TOC storage pool was not available
B. The correct option is TOC=if available.
C. The backup was type snapm where toc=yes is not allowed.
D. The assigned management class did not have a TOC destination.
Answer: D

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NO.6 What must be set to enable client-side deduplication with IBM Tivoli Storage Manager
V6.3.?
A. The DEDUPLICATION option on the client must be set to CLIENT.
B. The DEDUPLICATION option on the client must be set to CLIENTORSERVER.
C. The primary storage pool must be a random-access DISK storage pool that is enabled for
data
deduplication.
D. The primary storage pool must be a sequential-access FILE storage pool that is enabled
for data
deduplication.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which command checks the deduplication statistics for client CRSERVER after a
backup or archive?
A. q actlog search=dedup
B. q node info=dedupstat
C. q actlog search=CR SERVER
D. q dedupstat node=CR SERVER
Answer: C

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NO.8 A tape cartridge was inserted into the library TSMLIB1 to be used as a scratch tape.
Which command
will make volume VOLUMEJ a scratch volume?
A. CHECKIn LIBVolume TSMLIBl SEARCH=Bulk CHECKLabel=Barcode STATus=Scratch
B. CHECKIn LIBVolume TSMLIBl VOLUME_l SEARCH=No CHECKLabel=Barcode
STATus=SCRatch
C. CHECKIn LIBVolume TSMLIBl SEARCH=Bulk VOLRange=VOLUME_l CHECKLabel=Yes
STATus=SCRatch
D. CHECKIn LIBVolume TSMLIBl SEARCH=No VOLRange=VOLUME_l
CHECKLabel=Barcode
STATus=SCRatch
Answer: B

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Exam Code: C2010-005
Exam Name: IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.1 Solution Designer
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NO.1 which external system can be interfaced to IBM Maximo Asset Managment V7.1 to
improt meter
readings?
A. Hubometer
B. Fixed Assets
C. General Ledger
D. Control System
Answer: D

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NO.2 At which date level do contracts,Labor,and chart of Accounts reside?
A. set
B. site
C. system
D. organization
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which statement defines a maximo asset in IBM Maximo Asset Management
V7.1(MAM)
A. A Maximo Asset is a record in MAM used to identify equipment.
B. A Maximo Asset is a record in MAM used to identify company assets.
C. A Maximo Asset is any entity described in MAM to capture events and costs
D. A Maximo Asset is any physical entity described in MAM to capture events and costs
Answer: B

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NO.4 Onet or more solutions for each functional gap now have been identified where the
solution requires
one to vary from using standard IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.1.Which two factors are
used to
calculate the impact of each soulution for the project success?(Choose two)
A. length
B. urgency
C. Priority
D. Risk to business
E. difficulty to implement
Answer: DE

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NO.5 which three data elements are commonly interfaced to IBM maximo asset managment
V7.1 from an
exaternal purchasing system? (choose three)
A. calendars
B. vendor names
C. organzationgs
D. order quantities
E. person information
F. receipt quantities
Answer: BDF

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NO.6 The client requirements outline the need for advanced tracking of process
measurements such as
temperature,pressure,and flow. These measurement and test equipment requirments are
determined to
exceed standard IBM Maximo Asset Management capabilities.Which industry solution or
add-on will
provide this and other features?
A. Maximo Calibration
B. Maximo for service Providers
C. Maximo linear assest
D. Maximo lnstruments and controls
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which two methods are available to migrate data from a legacy system to IBM
maximo Asset
management V7.1(MaM)(choose two)?
A. use a data mapping tool to link the legacy database to the MAM data warehouse and
update the MAM
data.
B. Extract data from the legacy system and create SQL.statements to insert the data directly
into the MAM
database.
C. connect the legacy database to the MAM database and synchronize the required data by
using an
external data mapping tool.
D. Extract data from the legacy system to comma-separated value files and use the data
import option of
the lntegration framework
E. restore the legacy database on the MAM database server,connect MAM to the legacy
database.and
reorganize the tables.view.and fields.
Answer: BD

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NO.8 if a customer has a requirements list,when is the best time to review this list with the
customer and
classify the requirements?
A. at the end of the design phase
B. as the first task of Design phase
C. during the process design workshops
D. at the beginning of the configuration phase
Answer: B

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Exam Code: M2110-670
Exam Name: IBM SVP Primary Support Provider Mastery Test v1
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NO.1 What steps should a Primary Support Provider take before escalating an issue to IBM
Customer Support1?
A. Ask the customer to download product documentation
B. Forward emails from the customer to IBM Customer Support
C. Run IBM Support Assistant Lite, get all MustGather information, search the IBM Knowledge Base
D. All of the above
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the recommended IBM technology that may be used to view and control remote
environments in order to troubleshoot an issue?
A. Same time
B. Fix Central
C. Assist On-Site
D. Electronic Service Request
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which party owns the responsibility of communicating a Problem Management Record (PMR)
solution to the end customer?
A. The Primary Support Provider will provide the final solution to the customer because they own
the relationship with the customer
B. Since they are most familiar with the code, the IBM Developer will provide the final solution to
the customer
C. The IBM Customer Support engineer will provide the final solution to the customer, because they
own the relationship with the customer.
D. Because both parties have a case open on the issue, the Primary Support Provider and the IBM
Customer Support engineer are required to jointly present the final solution to the customer
Answer: A

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Reference:https://public.dhe.ibm.com/partnerworld/pub/swg/tivoli/lessons/lesson_1_ibm_softwar
e _support_provider_overview_v11.03.21.pdf(slide 11)

NO.4 When should a Primary Support Provider use the telephone to communicate with a customer
that has logged a support call with them?
A. When the customer has to be told bad news
B. When the customer is in a different time zone
C. When the message includes links to documentation
D. When the message has to be conveyed to more than one person
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which upload protocols are supported by the ECuRep Tool?
A. SCP , TCP , FTP and Secure FTP
B. TCP , UUCP , HTTP and HTTPS
C. E-mail, HTTP and HTTPS, FTP and Secure FTP
D. E-mail, UUCP , SCP , TCP
Answer: C

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Reference:http://www-05.ibm.com/de/support/ecurep/send.html

NO.6 Which of these best describes a Primary Support Provider's Level 1 Customer Support
responsibilities?
A. Taking the first support call from their customer and escalating it to IBM
B. Logging all calls in a call tracking system and utilizing the tools available to troubleshoot the issue.
C. Testing new software versions of IBM products and communicating the release of said software
to customers that have purchased the software from IBM.
D. Incorporating and testing any program fix provided by IBM Customer Support (as appropriate),
and delivering or communicating the problem resolution, bypass, circumvention, or other notice of
restriction to the customer.
Answer: B

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Reference:https://public.dhe.ibm.com/partnerworld/pub/swg/tivoli/lessons/lesson_1_ibm_softwar
e _support_provider_overview_v11.03.21.pdf

NO.7 What is required of the customer when a Primary Support Provider wishes to escalate an issue
to IBM Customer Support?
A. The customer must open a Problem Management Report (PMR) through the Service Request (SR)
Portal.
B. The customer must grant IBM Customer Support access to their systems so they can upgrade
their software.
C. There is no customer requirement, the Primary Support Provider will escalate the issue to IBM
Customer Support
D. The customer must install the latest version and patches of the software before IBM Customer
Support can be engaged.
Answer: C

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NO.8 When troubleshooting, it is imperative to gather log files from what time period?
A. After the issue occurred
B. Before the issue occurred
C. When the issued occurred
D. One month before and one month after the issue occurred
Answer: B

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NO.1 -- Exhibit-
-- Exhibit -
Suppose the scientific community wanted to study the possibility of establishing a colony in outer
space on the planet Mars. Which one of the coyote's qualities would make the animal
a good choice for an experimental colony?
A. adaptability
B. playfulness
C. beauty
D. popularity with humans
E. friendship with wolves
Answer: A

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NO.2 -- Exhibit-
-- Exhibit -
Why are the opinions of Ted Fraser and David Pelly presented in this excerpt?
A. to give authority to the view that Annaqtuusi's work is important
B. to show that the author knows many important people
C. to present two opposing views on the subject
D. to add humor to an otherwise serious article
E. to make more people want to buy Inuit artworks
Answer: A

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NO.3 -- Exhibit-
-- Exhibit -
On the basis of the passage, if the author were editing someone else's work, what strategy of
criticism would she use?
A. She would try to give her criticism gently but clearly.
B. She would use only harsh, straight-forward criticism and get to the point immediately.
C. She would avoid offering any critical comments no matter how she appraised the writer's work.
D. She would inform the writer that unless she/he changed the work completely she would not be
interested in it.
E. She would carefully rewrite the work herself so as not to offend the writer.
Answer: A

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NO.4 -- Exhibit-
-- Exhibit -
What mood does the writer create with her description of the storm?
A. suspense
B. joy
C. sadness
D. bitterness
E. calm
Answer: A

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NO.5 -- Exhibit-
-- Exhibit -
What is Ray telling Molly about the country surrounding them when he says, "We're never goin' to
have another chance like this" (lines 61-62)?
A. Land will become more expensive as people move in.
B. Farmers will soon force the ranchers out of business.
C. The railroad is going to destroy the land.
D. They are too young to handle the responsibility of a ranch.
E. Lack of money may force them to become ranchers instead of farmers.
Answer: A

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NO.6 -- Exhibit-
-- Exhibit -
The cat in this excerpt clearly expresses his feelings to Diana when she catches him. Which one of the
following people probably feels the same way as the cat?
A. a lawyer winning a trial
B. a fisherman with no catch
C. a batter hitting a home run
D. a politician accepting a bribe
E. a general fighting off invaders
Answer: E

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NO.7 -- Exhibit-
-- Exhibit -
How might an individual who believes in "straight" criticism best be characterized?
A. understands that feelings are important
B. believes that others may find it hard to accept suggestions
C. admires those who offer indirect recommendations
D. believes that the most direct approach is always the best
E. refuses to discuss alternatives or other solutions
Answer: D

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NO.8 -- Exhibit-
-- Exhibit --
How has the "range" (line 24) of the coyote changed?
A. Most coyotes have moved south and west.
B. Wild coyotes are found primarily in Canada.
C. Most coyotes now live in large cities.
D. There are no coyotes in rural areas now.
E. Coyotes now live all over America.
Answer: E

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NO.1 A newborn infant is assessed using the Apgar assessment tool and scores 6. The infant has a
heart rate of 95, slow and irregular respiratory effort, and some flexion of extremities. The infant is
pink, but has a weak cry. The nurse should know that this Apgar score along with the additional
symptoms indicates the neonate is:
A. Functioning normally
B. Needing immediate life-sustaining measures
C. Needing special assistance
D. Needing to be warmed
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following techniques should the nurse implement to prevent the patient's
mucous membranes from drying when the oxygen flow rate is higher than 4 liters per minute?
A. Use a non rebreather mask
B. Add humidity to the delivery system
C. Use a high flow oxygen delivery system
D. Ensure that the prongs are in the nares correctly
Answer: B

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NO.3 A patient admitted to the hospital in hypertensive crisis is ordered to receive hydralazine
(Apresoline) 20mg IV stat for blood pressure greater than 190/100 mmHg. The best response of the
nurse to this order is to:
A. Give the dose immediately and once
B. Give medication if patient's blood pressure is > 190/100 mmHg
C. Call the physician because the order is not clear
D. Administer the dose and repeat as necessary
Answer: A

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NO.4 A patient who has just had a miscarriage at 8 weeks of gestation is admitted to hospital. In
caring for this patient, the nurse should be alert for signs of:
A. Dehydration
B. Subinvolution
C. Hemorrhage
D. Hypertension
Answer: C

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NO.5 Whilst recovering from surgery a patient develops deep vein thrombosis. The sign that would
indicate this complication to the nurse would be:
A. Intermittent claudication
B. Pitting edema of the area
C. Severe pain when raising the legs
D. Localized warmth and tenderness of the site
Answer: D

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NO.6 A patient is to receive 2.5mg of morphine sulfate. The ampoule contains l000mcg/mL. How
much morphine should the nurse administer?
A. 0.25 ml
B. 1 ml
C. 1.5 ml
D. 2.5 ml
Answer: D

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NO.7 To remove soft contact lenses from the eyes of an unconscious patient the nurse should:
A. Uses a small suction cup placed on the lenses
B. Pinches the lens off the eye then slides it off the cornea
C. Lifts the lenses with a dry cotton ball that adheres to the lenses
D. Tenses the lateral canthus while stimulating a blink reflex by the patient
Answer: B

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NO.8 A patient undergoes laminectomy. In the immediate post-operative period, the nurse shoulD.
A. Monitor the patient's vital signs and log roll him to prone position
B. Monitor the patient's vital signs and encourage him to ambulate
C. Monitor the patient's vital signs and auscultate his bowel sounds
D. Monitor the patient's vital signs, check sensation and motor power of the feet
Answer: D

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Exam Code: CLSSGB
Exam Name: Certified Lean Six Sigma Green Belt (CLSSGB)
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Exam Code: CTIL
Exam Name: Certified Software Tester - Intermediate Level (CSTIL)
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Exam Code: CTFL
Exam Name: Certified Software Tester - Foundation Level (CSTFL)
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NO.1 Which of the following describes structure-based (white-box) test case design techniques?
A. Test cases are derived systematically from models of the system.
B. Test cases are derived systematically from the tester's experience.
C. Test cases are derived systematically from the delivered code.
D. Test cases are derived from the developers' experience.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Answer (A) relates to specification-based testing, answer (B) relates to experience-based testing and
answer (D) could relate either to debugging or to experience-based techniques.

NO.2 What are the key features to be concentrated upon when doing a testing forworld wide web
sites ..?
A. Interaction between html pages
B. Performance on the client side
C. Security aspects
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.3 In a review meeting a moderator is a person who:
A. Takes minutes of the meeting
B. Mediates between people
C. Takes telephone calls
D. Writes the documents to be reviewed
Answer: B

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NO.4 Hand over of Testware is a part of which Phase:
A. Test Analysis and Design
B. Test Planning and control
C. Test Closure Activities
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
Answer: C

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NO.5 What do static analysis tools analyze?
A. Design
B. Test cases
C. Requirements
D. Program code
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is the Risk Priority Number for risk item number 2? 2 credits
A. 16
B. 2
C. 1
D. 63
Answer: D

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NO.7 Testing should be stopped when:
A. All the planned tests have been run
B. Time has run out
C. All faults have been fixed correctly
D. Both A and C
E. It depends on the risks for the system being tested
Answer: E

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NO.8 Which of the following is a valid drawback of independent testing? 1 credit
A. Developer and independent testing will overlap and waste resources.
B. Developers loose the sense of responsibility and independent testers may become a bottleneck.
C. Independent testers need extra education and always cost more.
D. Independent testers will become a bottleneck and introduce problems in incident management.
Answer: B

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NO.1 Which plan provides the Business Case with costs during the Initiating a Project process?
A. Initiation Stage Plan
B. Project Plan
C. Stage Plan
D. Team Plan
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which is an objective of the Directing a Project process?
A. Create and authorize the project mandate
B. Provide management control and direction
C. Control the day-to-day running of the project
D. Provide accurate progress information to the Project Manager
Answer: B

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NO.3 What theme provides all management levels within the project management team with
mechanisms for monitoring and control?
A. Progress
B. Change
C. Organization
D. Quality
Answer: A

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NO.4 What product defines the reporting requirements between the Project Manager and Team
Manager?
A. Project Brief
B. Product Description
C. Team Plan
D. Work Package
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which does the Executive need to ensure is in place before the project is initiated?
A. All Work Packages are authorized
B. An understanding of how the project will contribute to corporate objectives
C. The Project Plan has been approved
D. The Project Initiation Documentation is complete
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which is NOT considered when defining risk tolerance?
A. A Project Board's attitude towards risk taking
B. The allocated risk budget
C. An organization's risk appetite
D. The amount of risk a Project Board considers acceptable
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which product documents the information needed to demonstrate continued business
justification?
A. Business Case
B. Communication Management Strategy
C. Project Product Description
D. Quality Management Strategy
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which is a purpose of the Controlling a Stage process?
A. Produce a Team Plan for the work to be assigned to a Team Manager
B. Select and implement actions that will resolve deviations from a plan within tolerance
C. Obtain approvals for products delivered in a Work Package
D. Update a Project Plan to incorporate the actuals from a Stage Plan
Answer: B

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NO.1 What two components are required to form an iSCSI connection? (Select 2)
A. An iSCSI initiator.
B. An iSCSI source.
C. An iSCSI client.
D. An iSCSI server.
E. An iSCSI destination.
F. An iSCSI target.
Answer: A,F

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NO.2 Which three cloud providers are currently supported with Whitewater appliances? (Select 3)
A. IBM SmartCloud.
B. Microsoft Windows Azure.
C. Amazon Glacier.
D. Cloudian.
E. Rackspace.
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.3 Granite technology has built-in file awareness for which file systems? (Select 2)
A. NTFS
B. VMDK
C. VMFS
D. FAT32
E. EXT3
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 An environment has 5TB of file server data and 5TB of database data backed up with a full
backup each week. Assume the average dedupe rates for Whitewater, and assume standard 1%
change and 10% annual growth rate. With a requirement to keep a minimum of two weeks
ofbackups locally on the Whitewater cache, which Whitewater appliances would satisfy the
requirements above? (Select 2)
A. Virtual Whitewater appliance 210.
B. Virtual Whitewater appliance 410.
C. Whitewater appliance 730.
D. Whitewater appliance 2030.
E. Whitewater appliance 3030.
Answer: D,E

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NO.5 Whitewater appliance peer replication is supported in which of the following modes? (Select 2)
A. Single active/single passive (cloud only).
B. Single active/single passive (secondary Whitewater appliance only).
C. Single active/dual passive (cloud and secondary Whitewater appliance).
D. Single active/dual active (cloud and secondary Whitewater appliance in high availability mode).
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 A customer is looking to deploy Steelhead EX 1160-L's to 10 branches. Each branch is to have a
file server with 2TB of storage. What data set size does the Granite Core appliance need to be
capable of handling, assuming standard Granite Edge appliance blockstore sizing recommendations?
(Each 1160 has been configured with 275 GB/ 275 GB VSP/Blockstore setting)
A. 20 TB
B. 10 TB
C. 4 TB
D. 2.75 TB
E. 2 TB
Answer: D

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NO.7 What information is needed to configure a Granite Edge in the Granite Core?
A. Granite Edge Identifier.
B. IP address of the Granite Edge.
C. Primary IP address of the Granite Edge.
D. Granite Edge IQN (iSCSI Qualified Name).
E. In-path IP address of Granite Edge.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which mechanisms can cause Whitewater appliance replication to pause or effect the
optimization service? (Select 4)
A. Cloud provider outage.
B. Backup application crash.
C. WAN outage.
D. Whitewater bandwidth settings.
E. Incorrect cloud provider credentials.
Answer: A,C,D,E

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Exam Code: C_HANAIMP131
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Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate - Financials with SAP Business All-in-One Solution Exam
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NO.1 What is the functionality of an aggregation node in a calculation view?(Choose two)
A. It calculates the sum, minimum, or maximum values for selected columns
B. It provides grouping of filter criteria
C. It provides deeper control over which columns are totaled
D. It determines the output structure of the calculation view
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 Which tasks can you perform with the data provisioning view in the SAP HANA studio?(Choose
two)
A. Start replication of tables
B. Filter replicated data
C. Apply data transformations
D. Suspend replication of tables
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 Which of the following is included in a rapid deployment solution (RDS) implemented on SAP
HANA?(Choose three)
A. Conversion of all BEx queries to analytic views
B. Guides and educational material
C. A mix of onsite and offsite consulting
D. The SAP HANA database license
E. SAP best practices and templates
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.4 You want to enable the end user to decide at runtime how to restrict the data in an
information model.
Which of the following objects do you use?
A. Input parameter
B. Filter
C. Restricted measure
D. Variable
Answer: D

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NO.5 What must you do to enable currency conversions with a fixed currency in an analytic view?
A. Set the Enable for Conversion option
B. Create a measure with the measure type Simple
C. Base the target currency on a currency column
D. Create the target currency using an input parameter
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following are characteristics of an operational data mart based on SAP
HANA?(Choose two)
A. It is based on analytic denormalized data models
B. It uses real-time replication of time-critical data
C. It runs directly on top of the operational data
D. It persists transformed data
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 Which type of connection does Direct Extractor Connection (DXC) use to transfer data to SAP
HANA?
A. RFC connection
B. Secondary database connection
C. http connection
D. ODBC connection
Answer: C

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NO.8 You would like to authorize a user to select and delete data from a specific column table. The
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Which privilege do you need to implement?
A. Analytic privilege
B. System privilege
C. Package privilege
D. Object privilege
Answer: D

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