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Exam Code: 3X0-202
Exam Name: SAIR (Apache Webserver (Level 2))
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 90 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Cookies can be used by Apache to create a click stream log of user activity.
However, for the cookies to work, Apache must be compiled with the _______
module, then the ______ directive must be added to the httpd.conf file.
A. mod_usertrack; Cookie Tracking on
B. mod_cookies; Cookies on
C. mod_cookietracking; cookie Tracking on
D. mod_cookielog; Cookielogging on
E. mod_userlog, cookielogging on
Answer: A

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NO.2 The system administrator has configured Apache to write its log files via the system logging daemon.
When Apache write its log files to syslog, it will run with the permissions of which user?
A. Always as root
B. Always as nobody
C. Always as webuser
D. Always as the owner of the http process
E. Always as the owner of the syslogd process
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following represents a security concern of programming CGI scripts using the C
programming language?
A. C programs must be run with setuid root.
B. If the program receives more data than the amount of memory it has allocated, a buffer overflow can
cause
the program to exit to a shell on the server.
C. Many early C compile lack the ability to dynamically alter file permissions, which results in many C
program running with root permissions.
D. CGI script written in C compile at runtime on the client system, which makes the client vulnerable.
E. If the server and client do not have identical compiler versions, the lesser compiler is used, which may
have
known exploits.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following are TRUE regarding contains in httpd.com? (Choose two.)
A. Containers consist of a Paired set of delimiters.
B. If two containers contradict, the first is applied.
C. Containers may only be applied globally.
D. Containers allow individual virtual hosts to have their own settings.
Answer: A, D

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NO.5 Jake has the text below in his httpd conf file. He does NOT have mod_mime_magic compiled as part
of
the Apache server configuration. Which of the following are TRUE concerning this information? (Choose
two.)
LoadModule vhost_alias_module modules/mod_vhost _alias.so
# LoadModule env_module modules/mod_env.so
# LoadModule agent_log_module modules/mod_log_agent.so
# LoadModule mime_magic_module modules/mod_mime_magic.so
# LoadModule mime_module modules/mod_mime_magic.s
<IFModeule mod_mime_magic.c>
MIOMEMagicFile share/magic
</ifModule>
A. The MIMEMagicFile directive will be processed.
B. The MIMEMagicFile directive will NOT be processed.
C. The server will NOT be able to use hints in share/magic to determine file types.
D. The server will be able to use hints in share/magic to determine file types.
Answer: B, C

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NO.6 Tom would like to group all of his CGI scripts to /lib/cgi-bin/. In order to do this, he needs to use the
ScriptAlias directive in the httpd.conf file of his Apache server. What modules need to be compiled in
order for this to work? (Choose two.)
A. mod_cgi.c or any module that supports the common gateway interface
B. mod_bin.c
C. mod_negotiation.c or any module that does protocol negotiation
D. mod_alias.c
E. mod_script.c or any module that does script parsing
Answer: A, D

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NO.7 The block of code below is found in the http conf file. Under what conditions would this block of code
execute?
<If Module !PHP/4.0>
...
</If Module>
A. If PHP/4.0 is NOT compiled or loaded into Apache when the block of code is called
B. If PHP/4.0 is NOT compiled or loaded in the module's shared library when the block of code is called
C. If PHP/4.0 is compiled or loaded into Apache when the block of code is called
D. If PHP/4.0 is compiled or loaded in the module's shared library when the block of code is called
Answer: A

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NO.8 Consider the file "test.html". Which of the following best describes what code does?
<html>
<from>
<INPUT TYPE=" button" VALUE="set cookie"
onClick = "document. Cookie =`first_name=Fred`;">
<INPUT TYPE = "button" VALUE = "display cookie"
onClick = "alert (document.cokkie);">
</from>
</html>
A. When the user clicks on "set cookie," it prompts the user for value. Once the value is entered, it can be
displayed using the "display cookie" button.
B. When the user clicks on "set cookie," the first_name cookie is set to "Fred." The first_name cookie can
be
displayed by clicking the "display cookie" button.
C. When the user first loads "test.html," first_name is automatically set to "Fred." The value of first_name
can
be seen with the "display cookie" button. The first_name cookie can be reset to empty ("") by clicking the
"set
cookie" button.
D. When the user clicks on the "set cookie" button, a new HTML page is loaded that displays the word
"Fred".
When the user clicks on the "display cookie" button, it alerts the user that it has been deleted.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following best explains why Apache Web servers are able to handles multiple requests?
A. In addition to port 80, Apache opens ports 8080,8000, and others to handle the additional requests.
B. Apache is able to spawn child processes that handle requests before they die.
C. Apache uses the renice service to load balance between different system daemons.
D. Upon reaching a set number of requests, Apache uses a raw socket to adjust a system's bandwidth to
handle
the additional requests.
Answer: B

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NO.10 If a user has already defined a log format called "common, "which of the following directives will
ALWAYS make Apache log requests to "/var/log/apache/access_log" using the " common" format?
A. TransferLog /var/log/apache/access_log format=common
B. TransferLog /var/log/apache/access_log common
C. CustomLog /var/log/apache/access_log format=common
D. CustomLog /var/log/apache/access_log common
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of the following HTTP headers will direct a browser to www.site.com after
waiting five seconds?
A. Rewrite 5; URL = http://www.site.com/
B. Location 5; URL = http://www.site.com/
C. Refresh 5; URL = http://www.site.com/
D. Reload http://www.site.com/ -t 5
E. Direct -t 5 http://www.site.com/
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following scenarios most accurately describes the Apache initialization sequence?
A. Apache spawns one child process each second until MaxSpareServer is satisfied or MaxClients is
reached.
B. Apache spawns one child, then two, then four, and up to 32 processes per seconds until MaxClients is
reached or Minspare Servers is satisfied.
C. Apache spawns one process then continues to double the number of processes spawned each second
indefinitely until MaxClients is reached or MinSpareServers is satisfied.
D. Apache spawns the needed number of child processes dependent on the incoming requests until
MaxClients
is reached or MinSpareServer is satisfied. For example, if three requests come in, Apache would spawn
three
processes, and soon.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Liz has completed an Apache installation on her computer. She did not encounter any errors. Which of
the following can she use to see Apache's default index? (Choose two.)
A. http://localserver
B. http://localhost
C. http://index
D. http://192.268.0.0
E. http://127.0.0.1
Answer: B, E

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NO.14 Which of the following can be used send to used to send a cookie to the http client? (Choose two.)
A. XMLScript
B. Static HTM
C. Java Script
D. CGI scripts
E. GIFScript
Answer: C, D

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NO.15 Which of the following best explains the function of the KeepAlive directive in Apache 1.1?
A. It defines the length of time Apache will wait before spawning additional processes.
B. It constantly checks on the Apache service and reports via syslogd if there is a server problem.
C. It makes a backup by spawning clones of itself in case the server goes down.
D. It defined how long a server process can keep a connection before shutting down.
E. It tells Apache how long to wait before going into the zombie process state.
Answer: D

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NO.16 One security exploit with Apache is to include a command in a script that lets the scripts execute a
command found in one of its variables. For example, a script might contain the who command and
display a list users logged into the server. Which of the following, if included in a CGI script, will run a
command with the appropriate permissions?
A. declare
B. fork
C. export
D. eval
E. eacho
Answer: D

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NO.17 Ralf, a user, wishes to upgrade his existing version of Apache by including mod_ssl as a loadable
module.
Assuming that the shared object for mod_ssl is libssl. So, that mod_ssl is located in "/prefix/modules/,"
which of the following must be present in his httpd, conf file?
A. LoadModule mod_ssl modules/libssl.so
B. Addmodule mod_ssl modules/libssl.so
C. LoadModule /prefix/modules/libssl.so mod_ssl
D. AddModule /prefix/modules/libssl.so mod_ssl
Answer: A

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NO.18 How does Apache enable CGI scripts? (Choose two.)
A. It links source pages to the appropriate client compiler.
B. It implements suid and makes the script excitable.
C. It defines content types based on the extension.
D. It references directories that contain the scripts.
Answer: C, D

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NO.19 Which of the following is a requirement for IP-based virtual hosting?
A. Separate network devices, each with its own I address.
B. Separate IP addresses for each virtual host
C. Separate configuration files for each virtual host.
D. Separate IPAlias directives in the httpd.conf file for each virtual host.
Answer: B

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NO.20 An administrator needs to set the permissions an Apache Web server to maximize security, while still
allowing for full functionality. Which of the following permissions are most appropriate for Apache
configuration files and Apache executables, respectively?
A. 755, 000
B. 755, 111
C. 511, 755
D. 777, 555
E. 755, 511
Answer: E

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Exam Code: 3X0-102
Exam Name: SAIR (Linux System Administration (Level 1) )
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 122 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which one of the following is NOT true about the cron service?
A. the cron service lets you execute scripts at a fixed time
B. only root can execute scripts at a fixed time
C. the "crontab" file specifies what the cron service should do
D. the cron service is similar to the command "at"
Answer: B

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NO.2 The system log files, which are written by the __________ daemon, are erased and then restarted
whenever the system reboots. (Fill in the blank for the proper daemon, and then state whether the
statement is true or false)
A. syslogd, true
B. syslogd, false
C. systemd, true
D. loggert, true
Answer: B

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NO.3 Assume Tom wrote a program that would let users on two separate Linux machines share their
directories, but his program has to read an initial configuration file to know which user has decided
to share which directory. Where should he ask the system administrator to put the configuration
file?
A. /usr/bin/
B. /etc/
C. /usr/local/bin/
D. A or C
Answer: B

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NO.4 If Alladin mounted "/dev/hda2" under "/chem/inorg", then the original contents of "/chem/inorg"
__________.
A. are lost
B. are copied in a directory into "/dev/hda2" under "orig.backup"
C. can be retrieved after unmounting "/dev/hda2"
D. are garbled
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following is NOT true about an inode?
A. It is a data structure on the disk that stores file attributes.
B. inodes are created when a file system is made.
C. The number of inodes for the disk denotes the number of files and drives the disk can hold.
D. The superuser can use the "chinode" command to increase the number of inodes in a file system.
Answer: D

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NO.6 If Priya created a symbolic link to "/bin/bash" in her current working directory and called it
"yash", then which one of the following is true?
A. She is not using any disk space.
B. She is just using up an inode but no space.
C. She is using both disk space and inode.
D. She is just using up a directory entry, but no inode.
Answer: C

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NO.7 The "fsck" command will search all mounted file systems.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.8 Tom, a Linux system user, has been using a Virtual Network Computing viewer but his viewer has
crashed. He calls Kina, the system administrator, to ask her whether the viewer can be restarted
from where it left off, or if he has to start the remote application all over again. Kina's response
should be:
A. No, the remote application cannot be recovered and Tom must start over.
B. Yes, the remote application can be recovered by restarting the viewer.
C. Yes, the application can be recovered by restarting the viewer.
D. Yes, it can be recovered by restarting both the server and the viewer.
Answer: B

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NO.9 If Priya created a hard link by issuing the following command from her current working directory:
ln /home/priya/mail/february lastmonth
Then which of the following are NOT true?
A. the file size of /home/priya/mail/february is not the same as lastmonth
B. changing the file lastmonth also changes the file /home/priya/mail/february
C. deleting the directory entry /home/priya/mail/february also deletes the directory entry lastmonth
D. /home/priya/mail/february and lastmonth are the same file
Answer: AC

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NO.10 The most appropriate place for commands such as: insmod, ifconfig, reboot, lsmod, and route is
A. /usr/bin; this is where all files that users have access to are placed
B. /bin; this directory, by convention, is always on the root partition and available for use.
C. /sbin; by convention, only the system adminstrator has /sbin in the default path, and this is always
mounted on the root partition
D. /opt/bin; by convention, these programs are for optimizing the system
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which of the following options is true of the entry below?
/dev/cdrom /cd iso9660 ro,user,noauto 0 0
A. This is an "mtab" entry which mounts a CD-ROM as a read-only device at boot time.
B. This is an "fstab" entry which mounts a CD-ROM as a read-only device at boot time.
C. This is an "fstab" entry which lets any user mount the CD-ROM.
D. None of the above.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following statements about cron/crontab is NOT true?
A. each user can have his/her own personal crontab file
B. the crontab file is automatically created when a user account is created
C. the superuser can edit the cron table using the "crontab -e" command
D. cron jobs run with the permission of whomever submitted the job
Answer: B

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NO.13 One of the most important security features that a system administrator must deal with is the
shadow password suite. For what reason is this suite important?
A. It improves the encryption for all passwords stored in the "/etc/passwd" file.
B. It provides a second level of encryption for the "/etc/passwd" file.
C. It moves the passwords to a separate file that has more restrictive permissions
D. It moves the passwords to a separate file and will also encrypt the password file.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Assume that Priya and Sita are Linux system users and that Krishna is the superuser. Also, assume
that both Priya and Sita were accessing files in the "/cdrom" directory and that they did not log out
and their current working directory is still in the /cdrom hierarchy. Krishna wishes to install some
software from a new CD-ROM that he bought. Which of the following are valid options for Krishna?
(Select all that apply)
A. He can just push the eject button on the CD-ROM drive that is currently in the drive, then insert his new
one and start the installation.
B. He has to find Priya and Sita and tell them to change directory from /cdrom so that he can then
unmount
the CD-ROM, eject it, put his new CD-ROM in, and then install.
C. Krishna can use "umount -f" to force the unmount of the CD-ROM, then he can eject it, insert his
CD-ROM, and install.
D. He can use the "fuser" command to find all processes that are using the CD-ROM device, along with
their associated PID's, kill each process, unmount the CD-ROM, eject it, put his CD-ROM in, and then
install the software.
Answer: BD

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NO.15 If Tom, the superuser, wants to add a swap file of 8 MB, what should he do?
A. Just run the command "swapon -file /swap -size 8192".
B. run commands "mkswap" and "swapon"
C. run commands "mkswap" and "sync"
D. dd if=/dev/zero of=/swap count=8192; mkswap 8192; swapon /swap
Answer: D

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NO.16 If Krishna, the superuser, installed the "gcc" compiler, where would he put all of the header files?
A. /usr/bin/gcc/include
B. /usr/include
C. /var/usr/include
D. /opt/gcc/include
Answer: B

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NO.17 The following entry appears in the /etc/crontab as follows:
30.4 * * 1 /bin/sh /home/Tom/rmcore 2>&1 /dev/null
Select the action below which best represents what it will accomplish.
A. "rmcore" will execute on April 30th for one hour
B. "rmcore" will execute on the first day of every month
C. "rmcore" will execute every Monday at 4:30 a.m.
D. None of the above
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which of the following directories, by convention, are NOT found in the /var directory?
A. mail
B. news
C. bin
D. spool
Answer: C

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NO.19 If correct permissions have been setup, users can execute their own programs at a fixed time by
submitting their jobs to the cron service using the crontab command.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.20 If Priya created a symbolic link using the following command:
ln -s /bin/bash yash
Then which of the following are TRUE? (Select all that apply)
A. adding a file called "yash" does not consume another Inode
B. The "ls -l" reports the same size for the file "yash" and the file "/bin/bash"
C. a new inode is created for "yash"
D. deleting the file "yash" has no effect on the file "/bin/bash"
Answer: CD

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Exam Code: ES0-006
Exam Name: RES Software (RES Automation Manager 2011 Service Orchestration Exam)
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Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 An XP machine with the German version of Windows XP is connecting to the Orchestration Service. In
which language will the client start up?
A. German
B. English
C. French
D. Dutch
Answer: B

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NO.2 The operation lifecycle of a service consists of three phases. Which phases are these?
A. Context, Content, Security
B. Qualification, Delivery, Return
C. Automation, Provisioning, Orchestration
D. Composition, Administration, Security
Answer: B

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NO.3 An administrator has configured several modules and run books in Automation Manager to install
applications unattended. The administrator wants that users can request these applications themselves
via Service Orchestration The administrator has already installed the Console. Datastore and Web Client
How can the administrator link the Orchestration Service to Automation Manager.?
A. In Automation Manager, go to the Interaction tab and configure the Orchestration Service pluguin
B. In the Orchestration Console, go to Setup > Datastore and select an Automation Manager environment
C. In the Transaction Engine, select an Automation Manager dispatcher.
D. In the Catalog Service, select the Automation Manager Integration tab and select "enable "
Answer: B

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NO.1 Which of the following is the channel used to carry the Audio for H.320 Terminals?
A.Channel 6
B.Channel 4
C.Channel 3
D.Channel 2
E.Channel 1
Answer: E

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NO.2 Which of the following is the Protocol RAS used by the H.323 Gatekeeper?
A.Registration, Alerting, and Status of H.323 Terminals
B.Registration, Access, and Status of H.323 Terminals
C.Registration, Activation, and Status of H.323 Terminals
D.Registration, Admission, and Status of H.323 Terminals
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following are Call Establishment packets? (Select three of the following options.)
A.Receiver Ready
B.Disconnect Request
C.Release Request
D.Setup
E.Connect Acknowledged
F.Receiver Not Ready
G.Alerting
H.Release Complete
Answer: DEG

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NO.4 Pick the best match; Audio "Critical Distance" is a definition that relates to:
A.Distance between the audio amplifier inputs and room microphone
B.Distance between the person speaking and the microphone used
C.Distance between the video display monitor and camera
D.Distance between the walls, floor to ceiling, and doorways
Answer: B

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NO.5 Local Area Network Metallic Interfaces are
A.connection oriented, point to point connectivity only.
B.unshared network that serves unlimited endpoints.
C.connectionless oriented connectivity, shared network that serves limited distances.
D.connectionless oriented connectivity, shared network that serves unlimited distances.
E.C and D
F.All of the above
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following correctly describes typical audio phantom power?
A.48 volts DC applied to a telephone circuit center pair used to provide power to the telephone set
B.12 volts DC applied to the tip and ring of a TRS connector used to power amplified headphones
C.A DC voltage applied to the center pin of an RCA type connector used to power remote pre-amplifiers
D.A DC voltage applied to pins 2 and 3 of an XLR connector returning through pin 1, used to power
microphones
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following describes the activity for which a RTCP is used?
A.Transport Task for Communication of Audio and Video over IP
B.Transport Task of Simple Network Management Protocol
C.Network Statistics of Media Channels between Videoconferencing Hardware
D.Network Statistics of Media Channels between Routers
E.Network Statistics of Media Channels between Gatekeepers
Answer: C

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NO.8 When required, improperly matched impedance will cause problems with__________.
A.Audio signal levels
B.feedback frequency filtering
C.room acoustics
D.all of the above
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following functions can NOT be performed by a microphone mixer?
A. Provide phantom power to microphones.
B. Provide gain to convert mic-level signals to line-level signals.
C. Provide a means to adjust the relative gain of different microphones.
D. Provide a means to adjust the video display brightness.
E. Provide a means to adjust the room acoustics
Answer: DE

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NO.10 A telephone call over the Public Switched Telephone Network is what type of quality?
A.Narrow band audio
B.Center band audio
C.Wide band audio
D.CD quality audio
Answer: A

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NO.11 The term "Full Motion Video" typically refers to a transmission of video at which rate?
A.Video Frames at a rate of less than 10 per second
B.Video Frames at a rate of greater than 100 per second
C.Video Frames at a rate of less than 24 per second
D.Video Frames at a rate of 24 or more per second
Answer: D

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NO.12 E1 framing has a bit structure of how many bits per frame?
Clue Full metallic E1 speed divided by 8KHz Stratum timing.
A.200
B.240
C.256
D.300
Answer: C

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NO.13 What are two other names for a Frame Relay Network?
A.RS-232
B.V.35
C.Broadband
D.Virtual Private Network
E.802.3 Medium Access Control Network
Answer: CD

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NO.14 Which of the following is Line Coding used for Primary Rate T1?
A.BRTZ-AMI
B.B7S
C.HDB3
D.B8ZS
E.Pulse Stuffing
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which audio coding uses 8 Kbps?
A.G.711
B.G.722
C.G.729
D.G.728
E.G.722.1
Answer: C

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NO.16 High Definition Video is best described as
A.Video Signal that consists of luminance scan interlaced lines.
B.Video Signal made up of 8X8 blocks of pixels.
C.Video signal that represents 720 lines of pixels, progressively scanned.
D.Video Signal made up of 40X40 macroblocks pixels.
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which of the following describes audio analog clipping?
A.A distorted signal voltage from a microphone after passing through an amplifier with excessive gain
applied.
B.An accurate signal voltage from a microphone after passing through an amplifier without any gain
applied.
C.Audio amplifiers with too high an impedance.
D.A clean signal passed through an Audio amplifier with excessive AC line voltage.
Answer: A

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NO.18 Multiplexers using HSD interfaces are DCE Interfaces that provide which three signals?
A.Transmit Data
B.Receive Data
C.Request to Send
D.Data Carrier Detect (RLSD)
E.TX Clock and TX Data
F.TX Clock and RX Clock
Answer: BDF

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NO.19 How is noise measured?
A.Volume
B.Distance
C.Amplitude
D.Impedance
Answer: AC

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NO.20 Which audio coding standards are described by H.323?
A.G.711, G.721, G.722, and G.723
B.G.711, G.722, G.728, and G.726
C.G.711, G.722, G.728, G.723.1, and G.729
D.G.711, G.722, G.728, and G.723.1
Answer: C

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NO.1 In the Orders form you define five LOVs, and you create one button to be used to display any of
the LOVs. The button is enabled only when the user navigates to a field with an attached LOV. If
the user supplies only part of the required input data, the LOVs use that input as search criteria to
automatically reduce the LOV contents. If the LOVs hold only one value that can possibly match
user-supplied input, then the LOVs auto-complete the input field and are not displayed. Which
built-in and properties should you use to display the LOVs?
A.Use the List_Values(RESTRICT) built-in, and set the Mouse Navigate property value to NO.
B.Use the List_Values(RESTRICT) built-in, and set the Mouse Navigate property value to YES.
C.Use the List_Values(NO_RESTRICT) built-in, and set the Mouse Navigate property value to NO.
D.Use the List_Values(NO_RESTRICT) built-in, and set the Mouse Navigate property value to YES.
E.Use the Show_LOV built-in, and set the Mouse Navigate property value to YES.
F.Use the Show_LOV built-in, and set the Mouse Navigate property value to NO.
Correct:A

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NO.2 Which two statements about a Non-Query Record Group are true? (Choose two.)
A.The Record Group is associated with a query at run time or at design time.
B.The Record Group can be created and modified only at run time.
C.The Record Group can be created and modified only at design time.
D.The Record Group can be created and modified at design time or at run time.
E.You can modify the structure of this Record Group by adding columns and rows.
F.The Record Group is associated with a query only at design time.
Correct:B E

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NO.3 Which two statements correctly describe the relationship between a content canvas and a
window? (Choose two.)
A.Only one content canvas can be associated with a window.
B.Only one content canvas at a time can appear in a window.
C.One or more content canvases can be associated with a window.
D.A content canvas can be associated with two or more windows.
E.A content canvas cannot be larger than the window with which it is associated.
F.A maximum of two content canvases can appear in a window at the same time.
Correct:B C

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NO.4 You need to resize the INVENTORY tab canvas. The Viewport Width and Height properties are
200 and 300. You change the values to 150 and 120, respectively. What implication may this have
on your design?
A.Some tab pages may be obscured at run time.
B.By decreasing the Viewport Width property, some tab pages may be deleted.
C.Objects previously within the borders of a tab page may fall outside the tab page border, and you will
get compilation errors.
D.Objects previously within the borders of a tab page may fall outside the tab page border and will be
visible at run time only by navigating to them programmatically.
E.Objects previously within the borders of a tab page may fall outside the tab page border and will be
assigned to the null canvas.
Correct:C

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NO.5 View the Exhibit. You are coding a When-New-Form-Instance trigger to populate a hierarchical
tree item called Emp_Tree that should initially appear as shown in the exhibit. Mr. King, the
president of the company, is the only employee who does not have a manager. In the trigger, you
declare a variable called rg_emps that is of the RECORDGROUP data type. You will use this record
group to populate the tree. You use the following code to create the record group: rg_emps :=
Create_Group_From_Query('rg_emps', 'select 1, level, last_name, NULL, to_char(employee_id)
from employees connect by prior employee_id = manager_id start with manager_id is null'); You
then programmatically populate the record group, and then populate the tree with the record
group. You run the form to test it. Will the tree initially appear as shown? If not, why not?
A.Yes, the tree will appear as shown.
B.No. The first element selected in the select statement should be 4 because you want four levels of the
tree to be displayed.
C.No. You should eliminate the last element selected in the select statement, because you do not want to
display the employee ID.
D.No. The "connect by" statement should be "connect by prior manager_id = employee_id".
Correct:A

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NO.6 To centralize some of your processing, you decide to write PL/SQL library modules that contain
procedures that can be called from form triggers or menu items. You need to populate some fields
based on values in other fields. Which code do you use?
A.IF FIND_ITEM('ORDERS.order_total') > 10000 THEN FIND_ITEM('ORDERS.large_order') := 'Y';
MESSAGE('WARNING - large order!'); END IF;
B.IF :ORDERS.order_total > 10000 THEN :ORDERS.large_order := 'Y'; MESSAGE('WARNING - large
order!'); END IF;
C.IF 'ORDERS.order_total' > 10000 THEN 'ORDERS.large_order' := 'Y'; MESSAGE('WARNING - large
order!'); END IF;
D.IF :ORDERS.order_total > 10000 THEN COPY('ORDERS.large_order','Y'); MESSAGE('WARNING -
large order!'); END IF;
E.IF NAME_IN('ORDERS.order_total') > 10000 THEN COPY('Y','ORDERS.large_order');
MESSAGE('WARNING - large order!'); END IF;
Correct:E

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NO.7 In a multiform application, one form must invoke another. The form modules are called
Customers and Orders internally, but the compiled files are saved as CUST.FMX and ORD.FMX,
respectively. There is a button in the Customers form with a When-Button-Pressed trigger to
invoke the Orders form. There is a requirement that only one Orders form can be running at a time,
so the trigger must check to see if the form is already open. If it is open, the focus must be sent to
it. If it is not open, it has to be opened. Which of these trigger codes will achieve the required
functionality?
A.IF NOT FIND_FORM('ord') THEN OPEN_FORM('ord'); ELSE GO_FORM('orders'); END IF;
B.IF ID_NULL(FIND_FORM('ord')) THEN OPEN_FORM('orders'); ELSE GO_FORM('ord'); END IF;
C.IF ID_NULL(FIND_FORM('orders')) THEN OPEN_FORM('ord'); ELSE GO_FORM('orders'); END IF;
D.IF NOT FIND_FORM('orders')) THEN OPEN_FORM('orders'); ELSE GO_FORM('ord'); END IF;
Correct:C

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NO.8 The Warehouse.fmb module contains two data blocks. You want to display items from each
data block on separate content canvases. You must ensure that both content canvases are visible
together at run time. Which two statements about content canvases are correct? (Choose two.)
A.A window cannot display more than one content canvas during a run time session.
B.A content canvas can be associated with a window by setting the Window property of the canvas.
C.Two or more content canvases can be displayed by associating each of them with a different window.
D.A content canvas can be associated with a window by setting the Primary Canvas property of the
window.
E.A content canvas can be associated with two or more windows by setting the Primary Canvas property
of the windows.
F.Two or more content canvases can be displayed by setting their viewports to be smaller than the
window with which they are to be associated.
Correct:B C

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NO.9 You are developing a Human Resources form for HR clerks to insert, update, and delete
records from the EMPLOYEES table. When the user commits records, Forms displays the default
informative message "FRM-40400: Transaction complete: records applied and saved." You want
to replace that with the message "Records inserted: Records updated: Records deleted: ", where
represents the number of records inserted, updated, and deleted. Which triggers must you create
or modify to accomplish this?
A.On-Message only
B.Post-Commit and On-Message
C.Post-Database-Commit and On-Message
D.When-Validate-Record and On-Message
E.Post-Insert, Post-Update, Post-Delete, and On-Message
Correct:E

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NO.10 Your company assigns three possible credit ratings to customers: Poor, Good, and Excellent
(represented numerically by 1, 2, and 3). The DBA has just added a RATING column to the
CUSTOMERS table and has asked you to add an item to your form so that credit ratings can be
recorded. To restrict data entry clerks to one of these three values, you decide to create a radio
group for the Rating item. You want to allow for an undetermined (Null) credit rating, and users
should be able to update the credit rating from a value to an undetermined rating. How can you
implement this?
A.Create three radio buttons for each of the credit ratings, and set the Mapping of Other Values for the
radio group to Null.
B.Create three radio buttons for each of the credit ratings, and set the Mapping of Other Values for the
radio group to one of the credit rating values.
C.Create four radio buttons, and leave blank the value for the undetermined credit rating.
D.Choose a different type of input item, because radio groups do not allow entry and update of null values.
Correct:C

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NO.11 You created a query Record Group at design time. Which built-in can you use to execute the
query defined in the Record Group object?
A.ADD_GROUP_ROW
B.POPULATE _GROUP
C.ADD_GROUP_COLUMN
D.SET_GROUP_SELECTION
E.CREATE_GROUP_FROM_QUERY
F.POPULATE _GROUP_WITH_QUERY
Correct:B

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NO.12 View the Exhibit. You are modifying the New_Orders form. You want to change the navigation
order of the Orders block so that Order_Status is between Order_Date and Order_Mode in the
navigation order. You attempt to drag the Order_Status item in the Object Navigator (as shown in
the exhibit), but Forms does not allow you to release the item in the desired position. Why is this
happening, and what can you do to change the navigation order?
A.Because the data block is subclassed, you cannot change the order of items in the object navigator, but
you can change item properties to affect the navigation order.
B.Because the data block is subclassed, you can only drag objects to a lower position in the Object
Navigator, so you can drag Order_Mode and Customer_Id to a position below Order_Status.
C.Because the data block is subclassed, you will have to delete the object and then create it again in the
desired position.
D.Because the item is subclassed, you cannot change any of its properties.
Correct:A

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NO.13 View the Exhibit. The EMPLOYEES table contains 100 records. You are developing a Human
Resources form that has an Employees block with properties as shown in the exhibit. When you
run the form and execute a query in the Employees block, approximately how many network
round trips will be made to the server before records are displayed in the block?
A.1
B.2
C.10
D.50
E.100
Correct:C

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NO.14 What type of message indicates a Forms message that cannot be suppressed?
A.a Busy message
B.a level 0 message
C.a Working message
D.a level 25 message
E.a level 50 message
F.a message with a level less than 0
G.a message with a level greater than 25
H.a message with a level greater than 50
Correct:G

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NO.15 You have the Orders form open in Forms Builder. You create an object group in the Orders form
and you try to drag various components in the Object Navigator to the object group. Which two
components will you be unable to place in the object group? (Choose two.)
A.the Orders block of the Orders form
B.the Order_CV canvas of the Orders form
C.the When-New-Item-Instance trigger of the Order_Items.Quantity item in the Orders from
D.the When-New-Form-Instance trigger of the Orders form
E.the Product_Id item in the Order_Items block of the Orders form
Correct:C E

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NO.16 The two-column LOCATION Record Group has 10 rows. At run time, the user wants to mark two
or more LOCATION records for use by another Forms Builder object. The rows will be used to
construct a WHERE clause for a subsequent data block query. Which built-in enable individual
rows to be marked?
A.ADD_GROUP_COLUMN
B.SET_RECORD_PROPERTY
C.GET_GROUP_SELECTION
D.SET_GROUP_SELECTION
E.RESET_GROUP_SELECTION
F.GET_GROUP_RECORD_NUMBER
Correct:D

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NO.17 Consider the following scenario: In a multiform application, the user started in FormA. 1. From
FormA, the user invoked FormB using CALL_FORM. 2. From FormB, the user invoked FormC
using OPEN_FORM. 3. From FormC, the user invoked FormD using OPEN_FORM. 4. From FormB,
the user invoked FormE using CALL_FORM. There is an additional form in the application, called
FormF. Which statement is true?
A.FormF can be invoked from FormC using CALL_FORM.
B.FormF can be invoked from FormA using OPEN_FORM.
C.FormF can be invoked from FormD using CALL_FORM.
D.FormF can be invoked from FormE using CALL_FORM.
E.FormF can be invoked from FormB using OPEN_FORM.
Correct:D

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NO.18 LibraryA and LibraryB are in the working directory of the Employees form. Library A is attached
to the Employees form. There is a stored procedure in the database called Raise_Salary which
must be called without any parameters. There is no Raise_Salary procedure in the form or in the
attached library. A When-Button-Pressed trigger in the Employees form contains this code:
raise_salary; Where does Forms search for the Raise_Salary procedure?
A.first in the attached library, then in the database
B.first in the form module, then in the attached library
C.first in the form module, then in the attached library, then in the database
D.first in the form module, then in the attached library, then in other libraries in the working directory, then
in the database
E.in the form module only
F.in the attached library only
G.in the database only
Correct:C

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NO.19 You want to create a calculated item in the Control block of the Human Resources form. This
item will contain the total of employee salaries for employees in a particular department. Which
statement is true about how to create the calculated item?
A.You can create it by first creating a text item and then changing the item type.
B.You can create it in the Layout Editor using a special tool that creates a calculated item.
C.You can create it by first creating a display item and then setting appropriate properties in its Calculation
property group.
D.You can create it in the Layout Editor by selecting the Salary item of the Employees block, selecting the
Control block from the block list, clicking the Text Item tool, and drawing a text item on the canvas to
automatically calculate a sum of the selected Salary item.
Correct:C

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NO.20 View the Exhibit. You are running a form in debug mode, but you have not set any breakpoints
in the code. You click a button that invokes the code shown in the exhibit. While the code
executes, you decide to examine the variable values in the loop. Which menu items in the Forms
Builder Debug menu would you choose?
A.Stop, Debug Windows > Variables
B.Pause, Debug Windows > Variables
C.Stop, Debug Windows > Form Values
D.Pause, Debug Windows > Form Values
E.Step Into, Debug Windows > Variables
F.Step Into, Debug Windows > Form Values
Correct:B

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Exam Name: ISM (Foundation of Supply Management)
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NO.1 The process of coordinating the organization, planning, scheduling, controlling, monitoring
and evaluating of activities so that the objectives of a project are met is known as:
A. Project Life cycle
B. Project Executive
C. Project Management
D. Project Organization
Answer: C

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NO.2 Contract statement of work is the output of which process group?
A. Planning
B. Organizing
C. Monitoring
D. Closing
Answer: A

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NO.3 A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service is called:
A. Project
B. Build
C. Enterprise
D. Development
Answer: A

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NO.4 According to Project Management Institute, which of the following is NOT the process group
of project?
Initiating
B. Organizing
C. Executing
D. Closing
Answer: B

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NO.5 Organizations less familiar with the discipline of project management usually begin by creating
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A. Procurement Management
B. Functional structure
C. Procedural structure
D. Performance Management
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 1Z0-050
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Database 11g: New Features for Administrators)
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NO.1 USER_DATA is a nonencrypted tablespace that contains a set of tables with data. You want to
convert all existing data in the USER_DATA tablespace and the new data into the encrypted format.
Which methods would you use to achieve this? (Choose all that apply.)
A.Use Data Pump to transfer the existing data to a new encrypted tablespace.
B.Use ALTER TABLE..MOVE to transfer the existing data to a new encrypted tablespace.
C.Use CREATE TABLE AS SELECT to transfer the existing data to a new encrypted tablespace.
D.Enable row movement for each table to be encrypted and then use ALTER TABLESPACE to encrypt
the tablespace.
E.Encrypt the USER_DATA tablespace using the ALTER TABLESPACE statement so that all the data in
the tablespace is automatically encrypted.
Correct:A B C

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NO.2 Which steps are mandatory to enable Direct NFS? 1. Mount all required file systems using the
kernel NFS driver. 2. Create an oranfstab file containing the attributes for each NFS server to be
accessed using Direct NFS. 3. Replace the ODM library libodm11.so_stub with libodm11.so.
A.2 and 3
B.1 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1, 2 and 3
Correct:B

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NO.3 You are managing an Oracle Database 11g database. You want to take a backup on tape drives
of the USERS tablespace that has a single data file of 900 MB. You have tape drives of 300 MB
each. To accomplish the backup, you issued the following RMAN command: RMAN>BACKUP
SECTION SIZE 300M TABLESPACE users; What configuration should be effected to accomplish
faster and optimized backups by using the above command?
A.The SBT channel must be configured, with the MAXPIECESIZE set to 300 MB.
B.The SBT channel must be configured, with the parallelism setting for the SBT device set to 3.
C.The COMPATIBLE initialization parameter for the database instance must be set to at least 10.0.
D.The SBT channel must be configured, with the default parallelism setting for the SBT device set to 1.
Correct:B

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NO.4 You are managing an Oracle Database 11g database with the ASM storage. The database is
having big file tablespaces. You want files to open faster and less memory to be used in the
shared pool to manage the extent maps. What configuration would you effect to achieve your
objective? (Choose all that apply.)
A.Set the ASM compatibility attribute for the ASM disk group to 11.1.0.
B.Set the RDBMS compatibility attribute for the ASM disk group to 11.1.0.
C.Set the COMPATIBLE initialization parameter for the ASM instance to 11.1.0.
D.Set the COMPATIBLE initialization parameter for the database instance to 11.1.0.
Correct:A D

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NO.5 View the Exhibit. Examine the following command that is executed for the TRANSPORT table in
the SH schema: SQL> SELECT DBMS_STATS.CREATE_EXTENDED_STATS('sh', 'customers_obe',
'(country_id, cust_state_province)') FROM dual; Which statement describes the significance of
this command?
A.It collects statistics into the pending area in the data dictionary.
B.It creates a virtual hidden column in the CUSTOMERS_OBE table.
C.It collects statistics with AUTO_SAMPLE_SIZE for ESTIMATE_PERCENT.
D.It creates a histogram to hold skewed information about the data in the columns.
Correct:B

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NO.6 View the Exhibit exhibit1 to examine the series of SQL commands. View the Exhibit exhibit2 to
examine the plans available in the SQL plan baseline. The baseline in the first row of the Exhibit is
created when OPTIMIZER_MODE was set to FIRST_ROWS. Which statement is true if the SQL
query in exhibit1 is executed again when the value of OPTIMIZER_MODE is set to FIRST_ROWS?
A.The optimizer uses a new plan because none of the plans in the exhibit2 are fixed plans.
B.The optimizer uses the plan in the second row of the exhibit2 because it is an accepted plan.
C.The optimizer uses the plan in the first row of the exhibit2 because it is the latest generated plan.
D.The optimizer uses the plan in the first row of the exhibit2 because OPTIMIZER_MODE was set to
FIRST_ROW during its creation.
Correct:B

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NO.7 Which statement is true regarding the VALIDATE DATABASE command?
A.It checks the database for intrablock corruptions only.
B.It checks for block corruption in the valid backups of the database.
C.It checks the database for both intrablock and interblock corruptions.
D.It checks for only those corrupted blocks that are associated with data files.
Correct:A

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NO.8 Which two are the prerequisites to enable Flashback Data Archive? (Choose two.)
A.Undo retention guarantee must be enabled.
B.Database must be running in archivelog mode.
C.Automatic undo management must be enabled.
D.The tablespace on which the Flashback Data Archive is created must be managed with Automatic
Segment Space Management (ASSM).
Correct:C D

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NO.9 Which statements are true regarding the concept of problems and incidents in the fault
diagnosability infrastructure for Oracle Database 11g? (Choose all that apply.)
A.The problem key is the same as the incident number.
B.Every problem has a problem key, which is a text string that describes the problem.
C.The database makes an entry into the alert log file when problems and incidents occur.
D.The database sends an incident alert to the Oracle Enterprise Manager Database Home page.
E.Only the incident metadata and dumps are stored in the Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR).
Correct:B C D

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NO.10 Which three statements about performance analysis by SQL Performance Analyzer are true?
(Choose three.)
A.It detects changes in SQL execution plans.
B.It produces results that can be used to create the SQL plan baseline.
C.The importance of SQL statements is based on the size of the objects accessed.
D.It generates recommendations to run SQL Tuning Advisor to tune regressed SQLs.
E.It shows only the overall impact on workload and not the net SQL impact on workload.
Correct:A B D

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NO.11 Which tasks can be accomplished using the Enterprise Manager Support Workbench in Oracle
Database 11g? (Choose all that apply.)
A.Generate reports on data failure such as data file failures.
B.You can package and upload diagnostic data to Oracle Support.
C.You can track the Service Request (SR) and implement repairs.
D.You can manually run health checks to gather diagnostic data for a problem.
Correct:B C D

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NO.12 You are managing the APPPROD database as a DBA. You plan to duplicate this database in the
same system with the name DUPDB. You issued the following RMAN commands to create a
duplicate database: RMAN> CONNECT target sys/sys@APPPROD RMAN> DUPLICATE TARGET
DATABASE TO dupdb FROM ACTIVE DATABASE DB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT
'/oracle/oradata/prod/', '/scratch/oracle/oradata/dupdb/' SPILE PARAMETER_VALUE_CONVERT
'/oracle/oradata/prod/', '/scratch/oracle/oradata/dupdb/' SET SGA_MAX_SIZE = '300M' SET
SGA_TARGET = '250M' SET LOG_FILE_NAME_CONVERT '/oracle/oradata/prod/redo/',
'/scratch/oracle/oradata/dupdb/redo/'; Which three are the prerequisites for the successful
execution of the above command? (Choose three.)
A.The source database should be open.
B.The target database should be in ARCHIVELOG mode if it is open.
C.RMAN should be connected to both the instances as SYSDBA.
D.The target database backups should be copied to the source database backup directories.
E.The password file must exist for the source database and have the same SYS user password as the
target.
Correct:B C E

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NO.13 When executing a SQL workload, you choose to generate execution plans only, without
collecting execution statistics. Which two statements describe the implications of this? (Choose
two.)
A.It produces less accurate results of the comparison analysis.
B.It automatically calls the SQL Tuning Advisor for recommendations.
C.It shortens the time of execution and reduces the impact on system resources.
D.Only the changes in the execution plan, and not performance regression, are detected.
Correct:A C

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NO.14 View the Exhibit to examine the parameter values. You are planning to set the value for the
MEMORY_TARGET parameter of your database instance. What value would you assign?
A.90 MB
B.272 MB
C.362 MB
D.1440 MB
Correct:C

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NO.15 Evaluate the following block of code: BEGIN DBMS_NETWORK_ACL_ADMIN.CREATE_ACL ( acl
=> 'mycompany-com-permissions.xml', principal => 'ACCT_MGR', is_grant => TRUE, privilege =>
'connect'); DBMS_NETWORK_ACL_ADMIN.ASSIGN_ACL ( acl =>
'mycompany-com-permissions.xml', host => '*.mycompany.com'); END; What is the outcome of
the above code?
A.It produces an error because a fully qualified host name needs to be specified.
B.It produces an error because the range of ports associated with the hosts has not been specified.
C.It creates an access control list (ACL) with the user ACCT_MGR who gets the CONNECT and
RESOLVE privileges.
D.It creates an access control list (ACL) with the user ACCT_MGR who gets the CONNECT privilege but
not the RESOLVE privilege.
Correct:C

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NO.16 Which two statements about workload capture and replay operations are true? (Choose two.)
A.The clients must be created manually on the test machines to perform more realistic testing.
B.Restart the database in RESTRICTED mode before beginning workload replay to enable a clean state
for workload replay.
C.Restart the database in RESTRICTED mode before beginning workload capture to enable a clean state
for capturing the workload.
D.The application state of the capture system must be identical to the application state of the replay
system when the workload replay begins.
Correct:C D

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NO.17 Identify the two direct sources from where SQL plans can be loaded into the SQL plan baselines.
(Choose two.)
A.Cursor cache
B.Stored outline
C.SQL Tuning Set
D.Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) snapshots
Correct:A C

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NO.18 You want to take the backup of the USERS tablespace. It has a single data file of 900 MB.. You
have tape drives of 300 MB each. The SBT channel is configured for the RMAN. To accomplish the
backup, you issued the following RMAN command: RMAN> BACKUP SECTION SIZE 300M
TABLESPACE users; Which two statements are true regarding the execution of the above
command? (Choose two.)
A.The backup piece size will be limited to 300 MB.
B.The operation is accomplished using the default channel available.
C.The RMAN parallelizes the backup although the parallelism is not set for a channel.
D.Three channels for the tape drive must be configured by setting the parallelism to three.
Correct:A B

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NO.19 You installed Oracle Database 11g and are performing a manual upgrade of the Oracle9i
database. As a part of the upgrade process, you execute the following script: SQL>@utlu111i.sql
Which statement about the execution of this script is true?
A.It must be executed from the Oracle Database 11g environment.
B.It must be executed only after the SYSAUX tablespace has been created.
C.It must be executed from the environment of the database that is being upgraded.
D.It must be executed only after AUTOEXTEND is set to ON for all existing tablespaces.
E.It must be executed from both the Oracle Database 11g and Oracle Database 9i environments.
Correct:C

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NO.20 Which statement describes the effect of table redefinition on the triggers attached to the table?
A.All triggers on the table remain valid.
B.All triggers on the table are invalidated and are automatically revalidated with the next DML execution
on the table.
C.All triggers on the table are invalidated and must be manually recompiled before the next DML
execution on the table.
D.Only triggers that are affected by the changes to the structure of the table are invalidated and
automatically revalidated with the next DML execution on the table.
Correct:B

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