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Exam Code: 350-080

Exam Name: Cisco (CCIE Data Center Written Exam)

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NO.1 On a Cisco Nexus 7000, a CoPP can be applied separately to each VDC.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.2 In a Cisco Nexus 5000, the multicast scheduling algorithm can operate in how many modes?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

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NO.3 Refer to the exhibit.
Identify the correct placement of spanning tree features in the data center topology.
A. RED = bpdu guard, GREEN = root guard, YELLOW = loop guard
B. RED = bpdu guard, GREEN = loop guard, YELLOW = bridge assurance
C. RED = bpdu guard/portfast, GREEN = loop guard, YELLOW = root guard
D. RED = bpdu guard/portfast, GREEN = root guard, YELLOW = loop guard
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which FEX supports FCoE?
A. N2232PP
B. N2224TP
C. N2232TM
D. N2148T
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which option describes what takes place when a "storage" VDC is created on Nexus 7000?
A. All M series modules in the VDC are powered down.
B. FCoE VLANs are allocated and interfaces are shared with LAN VDCs.
C. The module type is limited to F1/F2, and the ability to share interfaces is enabled.
D. FCoE is installed and F1/F2 modules are licensed for FCoE use.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which two Cisco devices form the virtual access layer in the Cisco Data Center Architecture? (Choose
two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 7000
B. Cisco Nexus 5000
C. Cisco Nexus 1010
D. Cisco Nexus 2000
E. Cisco Nexus 1000V
Answer: C,E

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NO.7 Refer to the components below. Which data center design layer contains these components?
-Cisco UCS 6100 Fabric Interconnect
-Cisco Nexus 1000V
-Cisco UCS 5100 Blade Chassis
A. the Virtualization layer
B. the Management layer
C. the Compute layer
D. the Services layer
Answer: C

Cisco   350-080 test   350-080   350-080

NO.8 Which three components does a data center network layer have? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco GSR
B. Cisco CRS-1
C. Cisco Nexus 7000
D. Cisco Nexus 1000V
E. Cisco Nexus 2000
F. Cisco ASR 9000
G. Cisco Nexus 5000
Answer: C,E,G

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NO.9 The persistent storage service (PSS) is used by which function?
A. storage of log files across reloads of the system
B. storage of license files in the backplane EEPROM
C. storage of the process-specific state for stateful process recovery
D. storage of core dump files from crashed processes
Answer: C

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NO.10 On a 32-port 10 Gigabit Ethernet module, each set of four ports can handle 10 Gb/s of bandwidth. What
can you use the rate-mode parameter for?
A. to limit the speed on any port
B. to dedicate all the group bandwidth to the first port
C. to dedicate all the group bandwidth to the last port
D. to limit the speed on all ports
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which tasks can be performed only in the default VDC?
A. EPLD upgrade, Cisco IOS ISSU, FCoE feature enablement, CoPP configuration, and rolling back a
checkpoint
B. EPLD upgrade, Cisco IOS ISSU, FCoE feature enablement, CoPP configuration, and SNMP
configuration
C. EPLD upgrade, Cisco IOS ISSU, FCoE feature enablement, CoPP configuration, and ACL capture
enablement
D. EPLD upgrade, Cisco IOS ISSU, FCoE feature enablement, CoPP configuration, and write erase
Answer: C

Cisco test   350-080   350-080 original questions   350-080   350-080

NO.12 Which option protects the supervisor engine against one class of traffic hitting too heavily on the
supervisor CPU, which leads to too many CPU resources being used?
A. SNMP
B. CoPP
C. ACL
D. Telnet
Answer: B

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NO.13 What does the previously active supervisor do when "system switchover" is issued?
A. State is transferred and then becomes ha-standby.
B. A core dump file is written, state is transferred, and the system resets.
C. State is transferred; the supervisor reloads and becomes ha-standby.
D. State is transferred; data plane operations are briefly suspended and then become ha-standby.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Refer to the exhibit.
Grace LSAs are generated by a router that wishes to execute a graceful restart of its OSPF process. A
grace LSA requests neighbors to continue advertising the router as fully adjacent during a specified grace
period.
What are two TLVs that must always appear in the body of a grace LSA? (Choose two.)
A. Grace Period (Type=1, length=4)
B. Graceful Restart Reason (Type=2, length=1)
C. IP Interface Address (Type=3, length=4)
D. Router ID (Type=1, length=4)
Answer: A,B

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NO.15 Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches are best positioned at which layer?
A. access layer, as an end-of-row switch for FCIP and iSCSI aggregation
B. distribution layer, with multiples of 10 Gb/s ports
C. access layer, as a top-of-rack switch for server I/O consolidation with FCoE
D. aggregation layer, supporting virtual security and application services
Answer: C

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NO.16 A Cisco Nexus 7000 switch is used with the VRF feature to provide separation between the inside and
outside interfaces of a transparent firewall. The VRF RED is used for an untrusted network of the virtual
data center, and it is connected to the outside interface of the firewall. The VRF GREEN is used as a
trusted network of the virtual data center and is connected to the inside interface of the firewall. Subnet
10.10.10.0/20 is used to communicate between two VRFs across the transparent firewall. The firewall is
configured correctly. The network administrator configured the VRFs and IP addressing correctly, but you
are still unable to communicate across the firewall.
What is a likely cause of the problem?
A. This topology is incorrect. A transparent firewall cannot be used with VRF.
B. On Cisco Nexus 7000, policy-based routing is required to communicate between two VRFs.
C. The issue is related to software licensing; an Enterprise Services license is required on Cisco Nexus
7000.
D. The issue is related to the MAC address of the SVI.
E. The issue is related to keepalive, which is not supported on the SVI.
Answer: D

Cisco   350-080   350-080 braindump   350-080

NO.17 Refer to the exhibit.
Cisco Nexus 7000 switches are deployed in a redundant configuration at the distribution layer of the data
center network. The network administrator configured all the trunk ports on the distribution layer to allow
VLAN 3 and created a VLAN interface with an IP address of 10.10.10.1/24. When the status of the
interface VLAN 3 is checked, it is shown as "Vlan3 is down, line protocol is down."
What is a likely cause of this problem?
A. The VLAN interface is not allowed in Cisco NX-OS.
B. The issue is related to software licensing.
C. Loopback is not set.
D. A VLAN is not created on the switch.
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which component of the Cisco Nexus 7010 architecture provides out-of-band management, an
always-on microprocessor for disaster recovery, and remote restart capabilities?
A. central arbiter
B. Connectivity Management Processor
C. supervisor engine
D. dedicated service modules
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which two options describe virtualized multi-tenancy? (Choose two.)
A. dedicated infrastructure for each tenant
B. shares a common infrastructure between tenants
C. agreement between tenants with rules about sharing DC resources
D. tenants using virtualization technologies to separate from each other
E. data centers using virtualization technologies to separate tenants
Answer: B,E

Cisco dumps   350-080   350-080

NO.20 Which three statements best describe the Cisco Unified Fabric solution for the data center? (Choose
three.)
A. Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches provide the capability to consolidate LAN and SAN traffic on a
unified fabric over Ethernet.
B. The unified fabric is delivered through technologies such as FCoE and DCB.
C. FCoE allows transmission of Fibre Channel traffic over Ethernet by encapsulating native Fibre Channel
frames into GRE and transporting them across the Ethernet network.
D. FCoE allows consolidating Fibre Channel traffic from multiple VSANs into the same Ethernet VLAN to
be transported across the fabric. PFC ensures lossless transport of the FC traffic over Ethernet.
E. PFC allows user priorities to be defined on a single physical link, each of which can have its own logical
lane that can be paused independently of the others.
Answer: A,B,E

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Exam Code: 642-584

Exam Name: Cisco (Security Solutions for Systems Engineers )

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NO.1 Which statement best describes Cisco ISE?
A. Cisco ISE consolidates user AAA, Security Group Access features, and ScanSafe functionality
into one product.
B. Cisco ISE consolidates user authentication with NAC components into one solution.
C. Cisco ISE provides AAA features, guest provisioning, and device profiling features in the base
feature set; link encryption policies, host posture, and security group access require the advanced
feature set.
D. Cisco ISE combines the capabilities of Cisco Secure ACS and Cisco Virtual Security Gateway
into one product.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which statement about IPsec and IPv6 is true?
A. IPsec is available only with IPv6.
B. IPsec support is mandatory in IPv4.
C. IPsec support is mandatory in IPv6.
D. In order to use IPsec with IPv6, IPv6 must be tunneled over IPv4.
Answer: C

Cisco questions   642-584   642-584

NO.3 Which statement describes an advantage of DV?
A. DV increases the complexity of administration.
B. DV simplifies BYOD deployment.
C. DV cannot prevent end users from uploading potentially malicious data to the system.
D. DV can prevent end users from downloading confidential data.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which two statements about Cisco IPS are true? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco IPS global correlation is performed before Cisco IPS reputation filters.
B. Cisco ASA-integrated IPS and standalone IPS offer the same features.
C. Cisco standalone IPS functionality can be virtualized.
D. The Cisco IPS reputation filter is based on Cisco SIO and allows packets that are received from
known malicious sources to be dropped before performing signature-based inspection.
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 What are two advantages of IKEv2 and Cisco FlexVPN? (Choose two.)
A. IKEv2 is backwards compatible with IKEv1.
B. Cisco FlexVPN supports interoperability, dynamic routing, direct spoke-to-spoke
communication, remote access, source failover, per-peer QoS, and Full AAA management.
C. IKEv2 consolidates several VPN key management features and standards into one new
standard.
D. The anticlogging cookie feature from IKEv1 has been improved.
E. IKEv2 uses IP protocol numbers 50 and 51.
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 Which statement about the Cisco IOS Zone-Based Policy Firewall is true?
A. Only virtual interfaces can be added to a Cisco IOS Zone-Based Policy Firewall zone.
B. A Cisco IOS Zone-Based Policy Firewall zone is a set of VLANs that share a certain trust level.
C. Cisco IOS Zone-Based Policy Firewall policies are not unidirectional.
D. The Cisco IOS Zone-Based Policy Firewall applies firewall policies to traffic traversing zones.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which three are security features that are applicable to the network edge? (Choose three.)
A. Layer 2 encryption service, also known as MACsec firewall service
B. VPN service
C. Email security service
D. WLAN authorization service
Answer: B,C,D

Cisco   642-584   642-584 braindump   642-584

NO.8 Which four features are provided by the Cisco AnyConnect client for Windows? (Choose four.)
A. SSL VPN
B. IPsec VPN
C. Host intrusion prevention system
D. Presence
E. MACsec encryption
F. Antivirus
G. Personal firewall
H. Cisco ScanSafe integration
Answer: A,B,E,H

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NO.9 Which three are features of an intrusion prevention system? (Choose three.)
A. Attack obfuscation
B. Detection of behavioral anomalies
C. Detection of protocol anomalies
D. Flexible content filtering
E. Forensic capturing
F. VPN termination
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.10 The Cisco SecureX Architecture is built on which three foundational principles? (Choose
three.)
A. Context-aware policy
B. Virtual office management
C. Network management
D. Content access control
E. Context-aware security enforcement
F. Network and global intelligence
Answer: A,E,F

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Exam Code: 646-365

Exam Name: Cisco (Cisco Express Foundation for Account Managers)

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NO.1 Cisco.com offers account managers which three of these resources? (Choose three.
A. customer issue narratives
B. training and events
C. ordering information
D. products and services information
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.2 From small business to large-scale enterprises, which two best describe how the Cisco Unified
Wireless Network reduces overall operational expenses? (Choose two)
A. extends network QoS throughout the network
B. simplifies management of central or remotely located access points
C. ensures implementation of the most recent security protocols
D. streamlines wireless LAN management
E. extends features for optical traffic network services
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 Which two functions does Cisco Configuration Assistant provide? (Choose two.)
A. device Discovery
B. call forwarding
C. call routing configuration
D. command line configuration
E. wireless connectivity
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 There are four main Cisco certification levels that you can attain as a certified Cisco
professional.
What is the highest level of certification that is offered?
A. Associate
B. Senior Associate
C. Specialist
D. Expert
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which Cisco Catalyst switches fit in the access area?
A. Cisco Catalyst 2900 Series, Catalyst 7300 Series, and Catalyst 8000 Series
B. Cisco Catalyst 2900 Series, Catalyst 3700 Series, and Catalyst Series
C. Cisco Catalyst 2700 Series, Catalyst 7300 Series, and Catalyst 8000 Series
D. Cisco Catalyst 2700 Series, Catalyst 3700 Series, and Catalyst4500 Series
Answer: B

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NO.6 Cisco Unified Communications 500 Series for Small Business, a critical part of the Cisco Smart
Business Communications System, is a unified communications solution for small businesses that
provides voice, data, voicemail. For which technology the Cisco UC520 provides integrated WLAN
connectivity to mobile clients?
A. voice only
B. data only
C. data and voice
D. None of above
Answer: C

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NO.7 Cisco Catalyst 4500 Series switches are attractive to medium-size campuses with growth
opportunities due to the switches enhanced security and which two other features? (Choose two)
A. enhanced multilayer software image
B. connectivity to multiple types of WAN connections
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D. QoS for converged networks
E. modular, customizable components
Answer: D,E

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NO.8 Whether an organization is a small or midsize business, an enterprise, or a service provider,
there
are certain key issues that are shared throughout the business environment. Which two choices
best describe key customer security concerns? (Choose two.)
A. increasing response time
B. interacting with suppliers
C. improving operational efficiency
D. reducing complexity
Answer: A,D

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NO.9 Which companion switch is recommended to be installed with Cisco Smart Business
Communications System?
A. C2950
B. C3750
C. ESW 500
D. SRW224G4}
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of these is the best definition of the Cisco Lifecycle Service approach?
A. It defines the minimum set of services required to successfully deploy and operate a set of
Cisco technologies
B. It determines how best to price Cisco products
C. It provides partners with a useful way to leverage Cisco resources
D. It consists of these phase: plan, deploy, support, and troubleshoot
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 642-997

Exam Name: Cisco (Implementing Cisco Data Center Unified Fabric (DCUFI))

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NO.1 Which statement about SNMP support on Cisco Nexus switches is true?
A. SNMP is not VRF-aware.
B. Cisco NX-OS supports one instance of the SNMP per VDC.
C. Only users belonging to the network operator RBAC role can assign SNMP groups.
D. Cisco NX-OS only supports SNMP over IPv4.
E. SNMP requires the LAN_ENTERPRISE_SERVICES_PKG license.
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is an Overlay Transport Virtualization extended VLAN?
A. the VLAN that must contain the overlay interface
B. the user VLAN that exists in multiple sites
C. the VLAN used to access the overlay network by the join interface
D. the VLAN used to locate other AEDs
Answer: B

Cisco   642-997   642-997   642-997

NO.3 Which option is a restriction of the unified ports on the Cisco UCS 6200 Series Fabric
Interconnect
when connecting to the unified fabric network?
A. The FCoE or Fibre Channel port allocations must be contiguous on the 6200.
B. vPC is not supported on the Ethernet ports.
C. 10-G Fibre Channel ports only use SFP+ interfaces.
D. Direct FC connections are not supported to Cisco MDS switches
Answer: C

Cisco   642-997   642-997   642-997

NO.4 Which feature enables NIV?
A. vPC
B. VN-Tag
C. Cisco OTV
D. Cisco FabricPath
E. EHV
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which statement about RBAC user roles on a Cisco Nexus switch is true?
A. The default SAN administrator role restricts configuration to Fibre Channel interfaces.
B. On a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch, roles are shared between VDC.
C. If you belong to multiple roles, you can execute only the commands that are permitted by both
roles
(logical AND).
D. The predefined roles can only be changed by the network administrater (superuser).
E. Access to a command takes priority over being denied access to a command.
Answer: E

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Exam Code: 156-210

Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point CCSA NG)

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NO.1 Network topology exhibit
You want hide all localnet and DMZ hosts behind the Enforcemenet Module, except
for the HTTP Server (192.9.200.9). The HTTP Server will be providing public
services, and must be accessible from the Internet.
Select the two BEST Network Address Translation (NAT) solutions for this
scenario,
A. To hide Local Network addresses, set the address translation for 192.9.0.0
B. To hide Local Network addresses, set the address translation for 192.9.200.0
C. Use automatic NAT rule creation to hide both DMZ and Local Network.
D. To hide Local Network addresses, set the address translation for privatenet.
E. Use automatic NAT rule creation, to statically translate the HTTP Server address.
Answer: C, E

CheckPoint dumps   156-210   156-210

NO.2 Check Point's NG with Application Intelligence protects against Network and
Transport layer attacks by: (Choose two)
A. Preventing protocol-anomaly detection-
B. Allowing IP fragmentation-
C. Preventing validation of compliance to standards.
D. Preventing non-TCP denial-of-service attacks, and port scanning.
E. Preventing malicious manipulation of Network Layer protocols.
Answer: D, E

CheckPoint test answers   156-210 original questions   156-210   156-210 exam

NO.3 A security Administrator wants to review the number of packets accepted by each
of the Enforcement modules. Which of the following viewers is the BEST source for
viewing this information?
A. SmartDashboard
B. SmartUpdate
C. SmartMap
D. SmartView Status
E. SmartView Tracker
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-210 test answers   156-210 questions

NO.4 SmartUpdate CANNOT be used to:
A. Track installed versions of Check Point and OPSEC products.
B. Manage licenses centrally.
C. Update installed Check Point and OPSEC software remotely, from a centralized
location.
D. Uninstall Check Point and OPSEC software remotely, from a centralized location.
E. Remotely install NG with Application Intelligence for the first time, on a new
machine.
Answer: E

CheckPoint   156-210 questions   156-210 test questions   156-210

NO.5 Why is Application Layer particularly vulnerable to attacks? Choose three
A. Malicious Java, ActiveX, and VB Scripts can exploit host system simply by browsing.
B. The application Layer performs access-control and legitimate-use checks.
C. Defending against attacks at the Application Layer is more difficult, than at lower
layers of the OSI model.
D. The Application Layer does not perform unauthorized operations.
E. The application Layer supports many protocols.
Answer: A, C, E

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NO.6 The SmartDefense Storm Center Module agent receives the Dshield.org Block List,
and:
A. Populates CPDShield with blocked address ranges, every three hours.
B. Generates logs from rules tracking internal traffic.
C. Submits the number of authentication failures, and drops, rejects, and accepts.
D. Generates regular and compact log digest.
E. Populates the firewall daemon with log trails.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Hidden (or masked) rules are used to:
A. Hide rules from administrators with lower privileges.
B. View only a few rules, without distraction of others.
C. Temporarily disable rules, without having to reinstall the Security Policy.
D. Temporarily convert specifically defined rules to implied rules.
E. Delete rules, without having to reinstall the Security Policy.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which critical files and directories need to be backed up? Choose three
A. $FWDIR/conf directory
B. rulebase_5_0.fws
C. objects_5_0.c
D. $CPDIR/temp directory
E. $FWDIR/state directory
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.9 You are administering one SmartCenter Server that manages three Enforcement
Modules. One of the Enforcement Modules does not appear as a target in the Install
Policy screen, when you attempt to install the Security Policy. What is causing this
to happen?
A. The license for the Enforcement Module has expired.
B. The Enforcement Module requires a reboot.
C. The object representing the Enforcement Module was created as a Node->Gateway.
D. The Enforcement Module was not listed in the Install On column of its rule.
E. No Enforcement Module Master filer was created, designating the SmartCenter Server
Answer: C

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NO.10 Network attacks attempt to exploit vulnerabilities in network applications, rather
than targeting firewalls directly.
What does this require of today's firewalls?
A. Firewalls should provide network-level protection, by inspecting packets all layers of
the OSI model.
B. Firewall should not inspect traffic below the Application Layer of the OSI model,
because such inspection is no longer relevant.
C. Firewalls should understand application behavior, to protect against application
attacks and hazards.
D. Firewalls should provide separate proxy processes for each application accessed
through the firewall.
E. Firewalls should be installed on all Web servers, behind organizations' intranet.
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-210   156-210   156-210   156-210

NO.11 You are importing product data from modules, during a VPN-1/Firwall-1
Enforcement Module upgrade. Which of the following statements are true? Choose
two.
A. Upgrading a single Enforcement Module is recommended by Check Point, since there
is no chance of mismatch between installed product versions.
B. SmartUpdate queries license information, from the SmartConsole runging locally on the Enforcement
Module.
C. SmartUpdate queries the SmartCenter Server and Enforcement Module for product
information.
D. If SmartDashboard and all SmartConsoles must be open during input, otherwise the
product-data retrieval process will fail
Answer: A, C

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NO.12 What are the advantages of central licensing? Choose three.
A. Only the IP address of a SmartCenter Server is needed for all licences.
B. A central licence can be removed from one Enforcement Module, and installe don
another Enforcement Module.
C. Only the IP address of an Enforcement Module is needed for all licences.
D. A central license remains valid, when you change the IP address of an Enforcemente
Module.
E. A central license can be converted into a local license.
Answer: A, B, D

CheckPoint   156-210   156-210 study guide   156-210

NO.13 Which of the following statements about the General HTTP Worm Catcher is
FALSE?
A. The General HTTP Worm Catcher can detect only worms that are part of a URI.
B. Security Administrators can configure the type of notification that will take place, if a
worm is detected.
C. SmartDefense allows you to configure worm signatures, using regular expressions.
D. The General HTTP Worm Catcher's detection takes place in the kernel, and does not
require a Security Server.
E. Worm patterns cannot be imported from a file at this time.
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which of the following are tasks performed by a VPN-1/FireWall-1 SmartCenter
Server? Choose three.
A. Examines all communications according to the Enterprise Security Policy.
B. Stores VPN-1/FirWall-1 logs.
C. Manages the User Database.
D. Replicates state tables for high availability.
E. Compiles the Rule Base into an enforceable Security Policy.
Answer: B, C, E

CheckPoint   156-210   156-210   156-210   156-210

NO.15 You are a Security Administrator preparing to implement an address translation
solution for Certkiller .com.
The solution you choose must meet the following requirements:
1. RFC 1918-compliant internal addresses must be translated to public, external
addresses when packets exit the Enforcement Module.
2. Public, external addresses must be translated to internal, RFC 1918-compliant
addresses when packets enter the Enforcement Module.
Which address translation solution BEST meets your requirements?
A. Hide NAT
B. The requirements cannot be met with any address translation solution.
C. Dynamic NAT
D. IP Pool Nat
E. Static NAT
Answer: E

CheckPoint   156-210   156-210 exam dumps   156-210

NO.16 What function does the Active mode of SmartView Tracker perform?
A. It displays the active Security Policy.
B. It displays active Security Administrators currently logged into a SmartCenter Server.
C. It displays current active connections traversing Enforcement Modules.
D. It displays the current log file, as it is stored on a SmartCenter Server.
E. It displays only current connections between VPN-1/FireWall-1 modules.
Answer: C

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NO.17 In the SmartView Tracker, what is the difference between the FireWall-1 and
VPN-1 queries? Choose three.
A. A VPN-1 query only displays encrypted and decrypted traffic.
B. A FireWall-1 query displays all traffic matched by rules, which have logging
activated.
C. A FireWall-1 query displays all traffic matched by all rules.
D. A FireWall-1 query also displays encryption and decryption information.
E. Implied rules, when logged, are viewed using the VPN-1 query.
Answer: A, B, D

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NO.18 You have created a rule that requires users to be authenticated, when connecting to
the Internet using HTTP. Which is the BEST authentication method for users who
must use specific computers for Internet access?
A. Client
B. Session
C. User
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which of the following characteristics BEST describes the behaviour of Check Point
NG with Application Intelligence?
A. Traffic not expressly permitted is prohibited.
B. All traffic is expressly permitted by explicit rules.
C. Secure connections are authorized by default. Unsecured connectdions are not.
D. Traffic is filtered using controlled ports.
E. TELNET, HTTP; and SMTP are allowed by default.
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which of the following suggestions regarding Security Policies will NOT improve
performance?
A. If most incoming connections are HTTP, but the rule that accepts HTTP at the bottom
of the Rule Base, before the Cleanup Rule
B. Use a network object, instead of multiple host-node objects.
C. Do not log unnecessary connections.
D. Keep the Rule Base simple.
E. Use IP address-range objects in rules, instead of a set of host-node objects.
Answer: A

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NO.21 What function does the Audit mode of SmartView Tracker perform?
A. It tracks detailed information about packets traversing the Enforcement Modules.
B. It maintains a detailed log of problems with VPN-1/FireWall-1 services on the
SmartCenter Server.
C. It is used to maintain a record of the status of each Enforcement Module and
SmartCenter server.
D. It maintains a detailed record of status of each Enforcement Module and SmartCenter
Server.
E. It tracks changes and Security Policy installations, per Security Administrator,
performed in SmartDashboard.
Answer: E

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NO.22 Which of the following locations is Static NAT processed by the Enforcement
Module on packets from an external source to an internal statically translated host?
Static NAT occurs.
A. After the inbound kernel, and before routing.
B. After the outbound kernel, and before routing.
C. After the inbound kernel, and aftter routing.
D. Before the inbound kernel, and after routing.
E. Before the outbound kernel, and before routing.
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-210   156-210   156-210   156-210 test questions   156-210

NO.23 Once you have installed Secure Internal Communcations (SIC) for a host-node
object and issued a certificate for it. Which of the following can you perform?
Choose two.
A. Rename the object
B. Rename the certificate
C. Edit the object properties
D. Rest SIC
E. Edit the object type
Answer: A, C

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NO.24 You are the Security Administrator with one SmartCenter Server managing one
Enforcement Moduel. SmartView Status displayes a computer icon with an "I" in
the Status column. What does this mean?
A. You have entered the wrong password at SmartView Status login.
B. Secure Internal Communications (SIC) has not been established between the
SmartCenter Server and the Enforcement Module.
C. The SmartCenter Server cannot contact a gateway.
D. The VPN-1/Firewall-1 Enforcement Module has been compromised and is no longer
controlled by this SmartCenter Sever.
E. The Enforcement Module is installed and responding to status checks, but the status is
problematic.
Answer: E

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NO.25 You are a Security Administrator preparing to implement Hide NAT. You must
justify your decision. Which of the following statements justifies implementing a
Hide NAT solution? Choose two.
A. You have more internal hosts than public IP addresses
B. Your organization requires internal hosts, with RFC 1918-compliant addresses to be
assessable from the Internet.
C. Internally, your organization uses an RFC 1918-compliant addressing scheme.
D. Your organization does not allow internal hosts to access Internet resources
E. Internally, you have more public IP addresses than hosts.
Answer: A, C

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NO.26 Which of the following is NOT a security benefit of Check Point's Secure Internal
Communications (SIC)?
A. Generates VPN certificates for IKE clients.
B. Allows the Security Administrator to confirm that the Security Policy on an
Enforcement Module came from an authorized Management Server.
C. Confirms that a SmartConsole is authorized to connect a SmartCenter Server
D. Uses SSL for data encryption.
E. Maintains data privacy and integrity.
Answer: A

CheckPoint exam prep   156-210   156-210 dumps

NO.27 Which of the following statements about Client Authentication is FALSE?
A. In contrast to User Authentication that allows access per user. Client Authentication
allows access per IP address.
B. Client Authentication is more secure than User Authentication, because it allows
multiple users and connections from an authorized IP address or host.
C. Client Authentication enables Security Administrators to grant access privileges to a
specific IP address, after successful authentication.
D. Authentication is by user name and password, but it is the host machine (client) that is
granted access.
E. Client Authentication is not restricted to a limited set of protocols.
Answer: B

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NO.28 You are a Security Administrator attempting to license a distributed
VPN-1/Firewall-1 configuration with three Enforcement Modules and one
SmartCenter Server. Which of the following must be considered when licensing the
deployment? Choose two.
A. Local licenses are IP specific.
B. A license can be installed and removed on a VPN-1/Firewall-1 version 4.1, using
SmartUpdate.
C. You must contact Check Point via E-mail or telephone to create a license for an
Enforcement Module.
D. Licenses cannot be installed through SmartUpdate.
E. Licenses are obtained through the Check Point User Center
Answer: A, E

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NO.29 You are a Security Administrator attempting to license a distributed
VPN-1/Firwall-1 configuration with three Enforcement Modules and one
SmartCenter Server. Which license type is the BEST for your deployemenet?
A. Discretionary
B. Remote
C. Central
D. Local
E. Mandatory
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-210 exam prep   156-210 demo

NO.30 Which if the following components functions as the Internal Certificate Authority
for all modules in the VPN-1/FireWall-1 configuration?
A. Enforcement Module
B. INSPECT Engine
C. SmartCenter Server
D. SmartConsole
E. Policy Server
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 156-815

Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Managed Security Expert NGX)

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NO.1 When installing the Primary MDS, what information must you have?
A. Type of MDS and IP address of Secondary MDS
B. Type of MDS and IP address range for virtual IP addresses
C. Type of MDS and name of leading virtual IP interface
D. Type of MDS and one-time password
E. Type of MDS and number of CMAs to be configured
Answer: C

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NO.2 After the trial period expires, a permanent license must be installed. To successfully install a bundle
license before the trial license expires, you must disable the trial license. Which of the following
commands will disable the trial-period license on a CMA before the license expires?
A. cpprod_SetPNPDisable 1
B. SetPNPDisable lic
C. cpprod_util CPPROD_SetPnPDisable 0
D. cpprod_SetPNPDisable 0
E. cpprod_util CPPROD_SetPnPDisable 1
Answer: E

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NO.3 How many CMAs can each MDS manage?
A. Unlimited
B. 50
C. 500
D. 250
E. 200
Answer: C

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NO.4 Identify the following Provider-1 configuration:
A. NOC
B. ISP
C. Standard
D. Point-of-presence
E. MSP
Answer: D

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NO.5 As a Provider-1 Administrator, you are concerned about the security of your NOC. You decide to install
a NOC firewall and hire a firewall expert to administer it. Your firewall expert wants to institute some
security measures to increase the firewall's ability to protect the NOC. One of his ideas is to hide all of the
invalid IP addresses of the CMAs, by installing a Hide NAT Policy on the firewall. Will this plan work?
A. Yes, because the CMAs use virtual IP addresses, and they require a single valid IP address to manage
remote Security Gateways.
B. No, because Hide NAT does not allow remote Gateways to connect directly to the CMAs.
C. Yes, but only if Hide NAT is configured with the Hide address of 0.0.0.0.
D. No, because VPN-1 NGX does not allow Administrators to configure Hide NAT on objects with
assigned virtual IP addresses.
E. Yes, but only if Hide NAT is configured with the Hide address of the leading MDS interface.
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is the function of a CLM?
A. Performs system backups of the Primary and Secondary MDS machines.
B. Regulates ConnectControl traffic from the NOC to remote Gateways.
C. Serves as a backup CMA for CMA-level High Availability.
D. Protects the Provider-1 system from a network attack.
E. Collects log data for managed Security Gateways.
Answer: E

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NO.7 When configuring an MDS MLM from the MDG, which of the following are required?
A. MDS IP address and MDS type
B. MDS Name and CMA IP address range
C. MDS Name and MDS type
D. MDS Name and MDS IP address
E. MDS IP address and CMA IP address range
Answer: D

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NO.8 To configure for CMA redundancy, which of the following would be necessary?
A. Multiple MDS Container machines
B. The CMA High Availability option selected in the CMA properties window
C. Multiple CMAs configured on a single MDS
D. Multiple MDS Manager machines
E. The CMA High Availability option selected in the Customer properties window
Answer: A

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NO.9 When you set up Administrator permissions during the initial installation and configuration process,
which of the
following options is NOT available?
A. Regular Administrator (None)
B. Customer Superuser
C. Provider Superuser
D. Provider Manager
E. Customer Manager
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following actions occurs after the configuration of a CLM on an MDS MLM for a specific
Customer?
A. The CLM object appears in the MDG. The Administrator needs to launch a SmartDashboard for that
CLM, and configure it to retrieve the logs from the CMA's Gateway.
B. A default CLM object is created in the CMA Security Policy and is added to the list of log servers for
each configured
Security Gateway.
C. No changes appear in the CMA Security Policy, but none are required. Once the CLM of a specific
Customer is created, all logs are sent to that CLM by default. This is after the Policy is installed on the
Gateway and the master's file is edited by the system.
D. The system creates a default CLM object in the CMA Security Policy. The Administrator must then log
in to the CMA and configure the Gateway to send all logs to the CLM, by including the CLM object in its
list of log servers.
E. The system performs no default configuration tasks. The Administrator must log into the CMA, create
the CLM object,and add it to the Gateway's list of log servers.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which service does the MDG use to connect to the MDS?
A. SAM
B. CPD
C. CPMI
D. SWTP
E. SVC
Answer: C

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NO.12 The Rule Base shown below is installed on the NOC firewall at the MSP:If the Administrator intended to
install licenses on remote Security Gateways by using SmartUpdate, this Rule Base is incomplete. Which
of the following additions would complete the Rule Base configuration?
<e ip="4-1.gif"></e>
A. The MDS must be added to the Source column of the CMAs-to-Security Gateways Rule.
B. Create a rule allowing the remote Gateways access to the MDS.
C. Create a rule that allows the remote Gateways access to the CMAs.
D. Create a rule allowing the Primary and Secondary MDS machines located at the NOC to connect to
each other.
E. Create a rule allowing the remote Gateways access to the NOC firewall.
Answer: A

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NO.13 How many CLMs can each MDS MLM hold?
A. 225
B. unlimited
C. 50
D. 500
E. 250
Answer: E

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NO.14 A Managed Service Provider (MSP) is using Provider-1 to manage their customer's security policies.
What is the recommended method of securing the Provider-1 system in a NOC environment?
A. The Provider-1 software does not include an integrated firewall to protect the Provider-1 system. It is
recommended to use a separate firewall to secure the Provider-1 environment, managed by the NOC
Security Administrator and the
Provider-1 / MSP Administrator.
B. The Provider-1 software includes an integrated firewall to protect the Provider-1 system. It is
recommended to use the included firewall to secure the Provider-1 environment, managed by the NOC
Security Administrator.
C. The Provider-1 software includes an integrated firewall to protect the Provider-1 system. It is
recommended to use the included firewall to secure the Provider-1 environment, managed by the
Provider-1 / MSP Administrator.
D. The Provider-1 software does not include an integrated firewall to protect the Provider-1 system. It is
recommended to use a separate firewall to secure the Provider-1 environment, managed by the NOC
Security Administrator.
E. The Provider-1 software does not include an integrated firewall to protect the Provider-1 system. It is
recommended to use a separate firewall to secure the Provider-1 environment, managed by the
Provider-1 / MSP Administrator.
Answer: D

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NO.15 Secure communication from CMAs to the Security Gateways uses which type of encryption?
A. Traffic between CMAs and Security Gateways is not encrypted. Therefore, no encryption is used.
B. IKE with pre-shared secret
C. 256-bit SSL encryption
D. 128-bit SSL encryption
E. RSA encryption
Answer: D

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NO.16 Does the Multi Domain Server (MDS) maintain multiple customer data bases, with each customer
data base relating to a single CMA?
A. The Multi Domain Server (MDS) does not maintain customer databases or CMAs.
B. The Multi Domain Server (MDS) can maintain multiple customer databases with each customer
database relating to multiple CMAs.
C. The Multi Domain Server (MDS) can maintain multiple customer databases managing one CMA per
customer database.
D. The Multi Domain Server (MDS) can maintain a single customer database able to relate to one CMA.
E. The Multi Domain Server (MDS) maintains one customer database able to relate to multiple CMAs.
Answer: C

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NO.17 The MDS will initiate status collection from the CMAs when which of the following occurs?
A. MDS-level High Availability is configured.
B. CMA-level High Availability is configured.
C. CMAs have established SIC with remote Security Gateways.
D. Get Node Data action is requested for a specific object displayed in the SmartUpdate View.
E. The MDG connects to the MDS Manager.
Answer: E

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NO.18 How many Multi Domain GUIs (MDG) can connect a Multi Domain Server (MDS) at a time?
A. 250
B. 5
C. unlimited
D. 500
E. 1
Answer: C

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NO.19 The Eventia Reporter Add-on for Provider-1 does not have its own package. It is installed, removed,
enabled, and disabled using which of the following scripts?
A. SVRSetup
B. sysconfig
C. cpconfig
D. SetupUtil
E. EVRSetup
Answer: A

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NO.20 All Check Point Products come with a 15-day trial-period license. How many CMAs can be managed
by an MDS
Manager running with only the trial license?
A. 500
B. 1
C. 200
D. 5
E. 100
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 156-815.70

Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Managed Security Expert R70)

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NO.1 Communication between the MDG and the MDS is secured in what way?
A. IKE encryption using shared secret
B. Configurable third-party authentication mechanism
C. Username and Password authentication
D. SSL initiated using SIC certificate exchange
Answer: D

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NO.2 When debugging the fwm process at the MDS level, what file is created?
A. $FWDIR/log/fwm.elg and fwm.log
B. /var/opt/CPsuite-R70/fw1/log/mds.elg and /var/opt/CPmds-R70/log/mds.log
C. /var/opt/CPsuite-R70/fw1/log/fwm.elg and fwm.log
D. $CPDIR/log/debug.elg
Answer: B

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NO.3 What information can NOT be obtained from the mdsstat output?
A. Hostname of the MDS
B. Up / down status
C. IP address of the CMA
D. PID number FWD
Answer: A

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NO.4 On which SecurePlatform kernel version is Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 R70 built?
A. 2.4.18
B. 2.6.18-92
C. 2.4.21-21
D. RHEL 3
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which one of the processes runs on the MDS Level?
A. fwm mds
B. fgd
C. iked
D. vpnd
Answer: A

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NO.6 A Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 MDS is supported on which of the following platforms?
A. 1, 2, and 3
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2
D. 1, 2, and 4
Answer: C

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NO.7 When debugging the fwm process at the MDS level, what file is created?
A. fwm.log
B. mds.error
C. mds.log
D. fwm.elg
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following systems would meet the MINIMUM requirements for an MDS.?
A. SecurePlatform, 10 GB hard drive
B. SecurePlatform, 2-GB hard drive, 8 MB memory
C. Solaris 9, 4-GB hard drive, 1 GB memory
D. Linux RHEL 5, 2.4 kernel, 4-GB hard drive, 4-GB memory
Answer: A

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NO.9 What is the name for the interface connecting CMA Virtual IPs?
A. Leading VIP Interface
B. VIP Lounge Interface
C. Main External Interface
Answer: A

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NO.10 Where do the Global Policy database files reside in an MDS environment?
A. $CPDIR/conf
B. $MDSDIR/database
C. $MDSDIR/conf/mdsdb
D. $MDSDIR/conf
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which operating system listed supports running a Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 MDS, but
has a limitation in the number of virtual IP addresses which can be assigned to a given interface?
A. Red Hat Enterprise Linux
B. Windows 2003 Server
C. SecurePlatform
D. Solaris
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which of the following are valid reasons for using Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 instead of
Management Servers?
A. 3 and 4
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. 1 and 4
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which of the following statements is TRUE about Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1?
A. Provider-1 encrypts all traffic among modules - so no firewall is necessary to protect the Provider-1
system.
B. The MDS Manager has a built-in firewall for the Provider-1 system, protecting the MDS Containers.
C. The added security of a firewall to protect the Provider-1 system is difficult to implement, and is not
recommended.
D. A separately managed Security Gateway is recommended to protect the Provider-1 environment.
Answer: D

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NO.14 All of the following can be configured on a Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 MDS, EXCEPT:
A. Analyze logs
B. Firewall Module
C. Firewall Manager
D. Customer Logging Module
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of the following ports is used by CPMI to communicate between Multi-Domain Management
with Provider-1 modules?
A. TCP port 260
B. TCP port 264
C. TCP port 18191
D. TCP port 18190
Answer: D

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NO.16 When does a SIC certificate expire for CMA/MDS?
A. After 3 years
B. After 5 years
C. The interval is configurable.
D. After 1 year
Answer: B

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NO.17 What directory is shared between MDS and CMA?
A. $FWDIR/log
B. $FWDIR/database
C. $FWDIR/bin
D. $FWDIR/conf
Answer: C

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NO.18 When a NOC firewall separates the Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 MDS machine and the
MDG (as shown below), what must be done to allow the MDG to connect to the MDS?
Modify the NOC Security Gateway Rule Base to allow:
A. RPC traffic for the MDG.
B. CPD and CPD_amon traffic to pass between the MDG and the MDS.
C. UDP traffic for the MDG.
D. CPMI traffic to pass between the MDG and the MDS.
Answer: D

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NO.19 Upon boot, where is the script for the automatic start of the MDS processes located?
A. /etc/init.d
B. /var/init.d
C. etc/init.D
D. var/etc/init.d
Answer: A

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NO.20 What directory would you find all the configuration files related to the CMA "Customer_1"?
A. /opt/CPmds-R70/Customer_1/
B. /opt/CPmds-R70/customers/Customer_1/CPsuite-R70/conf
C. /opt/CPmds-R70/customers/Customer_1/CPsuite-R70/fw1/conf
D. /opt/CPmds-R70/customers/Customer_1/CPsuite-R70/
Answer: A

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